REMOVED THIS THREAD

peteyh

Irishpearce26 said:

peteyh said:

Update - Agent. A has called and confirmed they have ended contract - will send list of "viewers" they istructed and only then if one of them approached to purchase, as Agent1. would be due fee. So won't be due based on buyer who merely contacted them based on their Advert. Which goes with the TPO suggestion thats not an "introduction"

Agent 2. question still remains if they are in or out of a contract with me.

Please stop making your posts so confusing. Is agent A now agent 1? From what you say agent A/1 still introduced the buyer by informing them a house on their books at the time was for sale and they are now buying said house. Your thought process around signing or instruction is very blurry, by your post you would let a trades man come in lay a new floor but not pay him because you only asked for a quote. They marketed your property for you, you weren't happy but in an agreement.

Seriously , you couldnt relate Agent1. to Agent A. - Ill happily run through the first letter of the alphabet for you and the first number in any sequence if it helps, bless you. Lets leave the advice from those more savvy - best you move on thankyou.

If you botherred reading the previous posts, the TPO, experts, state that introductions do not count as mere adverts being stated and a buyer responding too. Its needs be continued dialogue, viewings etc with a buyer and agent a. (thats 1. for you) has called me to confirm this.

Agent. 2 - I entered into a verbal agreement that stated they would Market the propert for FREE, thats zero cost, so yes i would let them photograph on that basis. There was no verbal nor written agreement as to fees. If the Agent chose to commence marketing at their cost without clarifying and agreeing fees for selling, that would be their issue. Expecially as said selling tactics involved speaking to the buyer in question and advising them they could get my property for 25k under value. NOT working for me their actual prospective client.

But thanks for your rude input.

peteyh

Irishpearce26 said:

peteyh said:

Update - Agent. A has called and confirmed they have ended contract - will send list of "viewers" they istructed and only then if one of them approached to purchase, as Agent1. would be due fee. So won't be due based on buyer who merely contacted them based on their Advert. Which goes with the TPO suggestion thats not an "introduction"

Agent 2. question still remains if they are in or out of a contract with me.

Please stop making your posts so confusing. Is agent A now agent 1? From what you say agent A/1 still introduced the buyer by informing them a house on their books at the time was for sale and they are now buying said house. Your thought process around signing or instruction is very blurry, by your post you would let a trades man come in lay a new floor but not pay him because you only asked for a quote. They marketed your property for you, you weren't happy but in an agreement.

Correct they did Market - prior to legally being able to as known by them - and the marketing side was FREE. The sale side was not , but not agreed to.

Keswick1uk

Do you think you'd have the sale if it wasn't for the agent? 

peteyh

Yes, the Keswick1uk said:

Do you think you'd have the sale if it wasn't for the agent? 

Yes, the couple contacted me direct through my friends who are their neighbours.

The key element is the law surrounding the contract.

peteyh

Irishpearce26 said:

peteyh said:

Update - Agent. A has called and confirmed they have ended contract - will send list of "viewers" they istructed and only then if one of them approached to purchase, as Agent1. would be due fee. So won't be due based on buyer who merely contacted them based on their Advert. Which goes with the TPO suggestion thats not an "introduction"

Agent 2. question still remains if they are in or out of a contract with me.

Please stop making your posts so confusing. Is agent A now agent 1? From what you say agent A/1 still introduced the buyer by informing them a house on their books at the time was for sale and they are now buying said house. Your thought process around signing or instruction is very blurry, by your post you would let a trades man come in lay a new floor but not pay him because you only asked for a quote. They marketed your property for you, you weren't happy but in an agreement.

So your analogy would be more apt in that, they came to measure my floor , without advising me the cost of the wood, they then sent me a quote with the cost and I said no. thats to expensive. Get it right. 

You send a quote to be agreed and signed up for before you do the job. They didnt in this instance.

 If you need some help in future with tradesmen , shout me....

Irishpearce26

peteyh said:

Irishpearce26 said:

peteyh said:

Update - Agent. A has called and confirmed they have ended contract - will send list of "viewers" they istructed and only then if one of them approached to purchase, as Agent1. would be due fee. So won't be due based on buyer who merely contacted them based on their Advert. Which goes with the TPO suggestion thats not an "introduction"

Agent 2. question still remains if they are in or out of a contract with me.

Please stop making your posts so confusing. Is agent A now agent 1? From what you say agent A/1 still introduced the buyer by informing them a house on their books at the time was for sale and they are now buying said house. Your thought process around signing or instruction is very blurry, by your post you would let a trades man come in lay a new floor but not pay him because you only asked for a quote. They marketed your property for you, you weren't happy but in an agreement.

Seriously , you couldnt relate Agent1. to Agent A. - Ill happily run through the first letter of the alphabet for you and the first number in any sequence if it helps, bless you. Lets leave the advice from those more savvy - best you move on thankyou.

If you botherred reading the previous posts, the TPO, experts, state that introductions do not count as mere adverts being stated and a buyer responding too. Its needs be continued dialogue, viewings etc with a buyer and agent a. (thats 1. for you) has called me to confirm this.

Agent. 2 - I entered into a verbal agreement that stated they would Market the propert for FREE, thats zero cost, so yes i would let them photograph on that basis. There was no verbal nor written agreement as to fees. If the Agent chose to commence marketing at their cost without clarifying and agreeing fees for selling, that would be their issue. Expecially as said selling tactics involved speaking to the buyer in question and advising them they could get my property for 25k under value. NOT working for me their actual prospective client.

But thanks for your rude input.

You have no idea on you're own personal circumstance or legal bearing in this scenario. You are as much confused as we all are but you wont admit that you are liable to maybe one or both EA. 

Here is an example of a neighbor's experience when I moved 4 years ago that may give context to contracts;

Neighbor A1 put their house up for sale after we bought ours wanting to downsize and with what we paid take advantage of the market. Got involved with an EA, didn't sign anything as they were a EA with blurry T&C etc. After 4 months the house didn't sell, they had 1 viewing but cut their losses and terminated the EA agreement. Two weeks after taking it off the market they get a letter through the door asking if they sold or not, turns out a lady that runs past the house noticed the for sale sign each time but didn't act on it. Look at the EA and seen it wasn't listed anymore but thought why not slip a note through the door, seller agrees to sell. done deal. The EA then realises that the house was sold and so issues and invoice for payment which is challenged. The legal verdict is that the buyer was introduced by the EA via for sale board with EA branding on the house. Seller had to pay fees.

peteyh

Irishpearce26 said:

peteyh said:

Irishpearce26 said:

peteyh said:

Update - Agent. A has called and confirmed they have ended contract - will send list of "viewers" they istructed and only then if one of them approached to purchase, as Agent1. would be due fee. So won't be due based on buyer who merely contacted them based on their Advert. Which goes with the TPO suggestion thats not an "introduction"

Agent 2. question still remains if they are in or out of a contract with me.

Please stop making your posts so confusing. Is agent A now agent 1? From what you say agent A/1 still introduced the buyer by informing them a house on their books at the time was for sale and they are now buying said house. Your thought process around signing or instruction is very blurry, by your post you would let a trades man come in lay a new floor but not pay him because you only asked for a quote. They marketed your property for you, you weren't happy but in an agreement.

Seriously , you couldnt relate Agent1. to Agent A. - Ill happily run through the first letter of the alphabet for you and the first number in any sequence if it helps, bless you. Lets leave the advice from those more savvy - best you move on thankyou.

If you botherred reading the previous posts, the TPO, experts, state that introductions do not count as mere adverts being stated and a buyer responding too. Its needs be continued dialogue, viewings etc with a buyer and agent a. (thats 1. for you) has called me to confirm this.

Agent. 2 - I entered into a verbal agreement that stated they would Market the propert for FREE, thats zero cost, so yes i would let them photograph on that basis. There was no verbal nor written agreement as to fees. If the Agent chose to commence marketing at their cost without clarifying and agreeing fees for selling, that would be their issue. Expecially as said selling tactics involved speaking to the buyer in question and advising them they could get my property for 25k under value. NOT working for me their actual prospective client.

But thanks for your rude input.

You have no idea on you're own personal circumstance or legal bearing in this scenario. You are as much confused as we all are but you wont admit that you are liable to maybe one or both EA. 

Here is an example of a neighbor's experience when I moved 4 years ago that may give context to contracts;

Neighbor A1 put their house up for sale after we bought ours wanting to downsize and with what we paid take advantage of the market. Got involved with an EA, didn't sign anything as they were a EA with blurry T&C etc. After 4 months the house didn't sell, they had 1 viewing but cut their losses and terminated the EA agreement. Two weeks after taking it off the market they get a letter through the door asking if they sold or not, turns out a lady that runs past the house noticed the for sale sign each time but didn't act on it. Look at the EA and seen it wasn't listed anymore but thought why not slip a note through the door, seller agrees to sell. done deal. The EA then realises that the house was sold and so issues and invoice for payment which is challenged. The legal verdict is that the buyer was introduced by the EA via for sale board with EA branding on the house. Seller had to pay fees.

i am very open to the fact i could owe commission to both agents - thats why i have made this post - do you comprehend posting to a forum for advice. 

What ive done is provided you more detail to your comments,  and corrected your totally in appropiate analogy that didnt work.

I've excellent dialogue with others who are providing intelligent feedback to which im responding - it would help if you removed yourself as proven by your analogy you cant grasp simple concepts. 
123
abc

Its not about the agent being relevant to the sale - they ofcourse are in respect to AGENT2. - its about whether im in contract with them.

For Agent 1. the TPO and AGENT 1 themselves have confirmed they will not be due any commission. Please reed.

thanks

Irishpearce26

Your OP begs to differ and your leading posts are confusing, the fact that you didn't get any clarity during the whole process shows how inept you are in this process yet you hope that you will somehow come out fee free. All the best 

peteyh

Irishpearce26 said:

Your OP begs to differ and your leading posts are confusing, the fact that you didn't get any clarity during the whole process shows how inept you are in this process yet you hope that you will somehow come out fee free. All the best 

Well you are the only ONE confused, and i would only truly gain clarity from a legal expert simple lad obviously. So merely hoping one may opine. PLus.. ofcourse I hope i get fee free.. are you in the real world!?

Best you go pay for a job before you get a quote... it makes me feel good there are people like you in the world, bless you

Keswick1uk

peteyh said:

Yes, the Keswick1uk said:

Do you think you'd have the sale if it wasn't for the agent? 

Yes, the couple contacted me direct through my friends who are their neighbours.

The key element is the law surrounding the contract.

But they knew you were for sale because of Agent B.