Ryanair and chargeback and new flights

michael1234

CKhalvashi said:

[DELETED USER] said:

MattMattMattUK said:

mit2 said:

I paid 1192.11 for the xmas flights and received £1192.11 via charge back. I then paid £892.11 for the original May flights, then on Sunday moved them to October at a cost of £300 , so have paid in total for October £1192.11 ( only noticed that tonight)  . They were all paid by the same payment method. The flights for May were originally booked after the chargeback. 

The fact that the amounts are the same is irrelevant. The most recent payments of £892.11 and £300 are for thr new flights. The Christmas flights were not eligible for a refund and the charge back was incorrect, as you received the money back via the chargeback process you still owe Ryan Air £1,192.12 for the Christmas 2020 flights, this is a debt, Ryan Air are within their rights to pursue you for this amount and to refuse you boarding or access to flights until you have paid them in full.

It's fraud. Just because he owed them money doesn't make it right.

It's an accepted practice that there is the right to offset money held in one account against a debt in another.

This has traditionally been in the context of banking, but I see no legitimate reason why it can't be applied to other areas. OP chose to book a non-refundable flight, was unable to go and then complained when the booking was non-refundable. If you want flexibility, you pay for it. I'm happy to not have flexibility in exchange for £20 flights across Europe, but not with Ryanair.

You cannot defraud a company of more than £1000 and then expect to use that company as though nothing has happened. If OP wants to change this, the correct method is clearly the courts (who may or may not agree, I have given more information on my thoughts above), not to mislead a financial institution to ensure funds are incorrectly returned.

Firstly, he hasn't "defrauded the company". It isn't even proven that he owes them any money. If he does, then it should be made clear on each occasion what he is paying money to Ryanair for. Is it for a debt, a debt agreement repayment, a flight - what is it for?

He isn't paying off a credit card with a well known order of payment priorities but to an airline who are explicitly stating at the point of sale that the new cash is for a new flight.

CKhalvashi

michael1234 said:

CKhalvashi said:

[DELETED USER] said:

MattMattMattUK said:

mit2 said:

I paid 1192.11 for the xmas flights and received £1192.11 via charge back. I then paid £892.11 for the original May flights, then on Sunday moved them to October at a cost of £300 , so have paid in total for October £1192.11 ( only noticed that tonight)  . They were all paid by the same payment method. The flights for May were originally booked after the chargeback. 

The fact that the amounts are the same is irrelevant. The most recent payments of £892.11 and £300 are for thr new flights. The Christmas flights were not eligible for a refund and the charge back was incorrect, as you received the money back via the chargeback process you still owe Ryan Air £1,192.12 for the Christmas 2020 flights, this is a debt, Ryan Air are within their rights to pursue you for this amount and to refuse you boarding or access to flights until you have paid them in full.

It's fraud. Just because he owed them money doesn't make it right.

It's an accepted practice that there is the right to offset money held in one account against a debt in another.

This has traditionally been in the context of banking, but I see no legitimate reason why it can't be applied to other areas. OP chose to book a non-refundable flight, was unable to go and then complained when the booking was non-refundable. If you want flexibility, you pay for it. I'm happy to not have flexibility in exchange for £20 flights across Europe, but not with Ryanair.

You cannot defraud a company of more than £1000 and then expect to use that company as though nothing has happened. If OP wants to change this, the correct method is clearly the courts (who may or may not agree, I have given more information on my thoughts above), not to mislead a financial institution to ensure funds are incorrectly returned.

Firstly, he hasn't "defrauded the company". It isn't even proven that he owes them any money. If he does, then it should be made clear on each occasion what he is paying money to Ryanair for. Is it for a debt, a debt agreement repayment, a flight - what is it for?

He isn't paying off a credit card with a well known order of payment priorities but to an airline who are explicitly stating at the point of sale that the new cash is for a new flight.

If he wants to use the company again, he's going to have to settle the matter with them somehow.

Article 10 of Ryanair's terms and conditions are here.
The legislation applicable to flight refunds are here, although I see no benefit in posting this as there is nothing applicable to OP here.
Section 3 of the Fraud Act 2006 is here (which would be applicable if Ryanair want to pursue this criminally, as deception has to have played a part in this). I have had to submit various documents for the chargeback route through a bank, so OP has at best been deliberately misleading.
The sentencing guidelines for the above offence are here. I would consider this a Category B5 offence, others may consider C5 as appropriate.

Please tell me how you would wish to argue this in court?

OP purchased a flight, the flight left, OP didn't use the service they'd paid for, the flight was non-refundable. It really is as simple as this. I'm not saying Ryanair are correct customer service-wise in how they've dealt with this (which is why I choose not to use them), but I'm equally not justifying the OP's fraudulent actions against Ryanair.

[Deleted User]

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[Deleted User]

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