Changing Name after Divorce

pandora205

I changed my name by deed poll (as it was at the time) immediately on separation by using a proforma from the internet. Most organisations accepted that though I had to forward other evidence for passport and driving licence (birth certificate and marriage certificate as I didn't have divorce papers at the time). From the free half hour I had with a solicitor (only time used during the divorce) it was pointed out that I couldn't legally change the children's names without their father's permission and that no court woud agree to this. They kept his and I have mine. It caused very few problems other than I had to occasionally grit my teeth when called Mrs X... (by schools etc.)

carlislelass

I kept my married name until I remarried

vix2000

Floss wrote: »

It may be archaic, but it is generally accepted that if a couple are married, any children would take the father's surname, as would the wife. However, your proposal would not work as well in the cases of those relationships which do not end ....

To suddenly change one's name back to one's maiden name can cause problems with schools - and with the education authority if in the middle of applications for high school as I was at the time.

It would work as well if we weren't socially conditioned to take the fathers name. My point was not what we are, as a society, used to doing but what would be most practical. My argument is why should it be that the female has to take the name of the male, and not vice-versa? Only because of archaic tradition. Historically women were not allowed to divorce men, but this is not still so, because obviously it was deemed to be inappropriate. I am just throwing in the suggestion that the wife and children taking the mans name could be seen as being inappropriate in this day and age. Just my opinion though.

you_wicked_gay

How do you go about changing your surname from your married name to your maiden name after a divorce?

My Mum & Dad have been divorced for a short while now, and my Mum at the time left her name as her married name. However, she has now decided that she wants to change her married surname to her maiden name.

How does she go about doing this legally? She's asked me to find out, but the internet is totally boggling my brain!

Does she have to go through a solicitor? Or through a registry office? Or deedpole?

Argh! Help!

WestonDave

She doesn't have to do anything! She always has the right to use her maiden name - the following is a direct quote from the principal registrar on the subject -

"A woman who bears her father's surname is regarded as having this surname treated as her maiden name. Upon marriage it is the custom for the wife to assume and use her husband's surname. However, this is merely a convention. At no time does she lose her maiden name, which she may use at any time or indeed at the same time as her married name.
Hence, on divorcing their husband, the former wife is fully entitled to reverting to using her maiden name without any formaility - because she never lost her surname"

She may need to produce documents like her decree absolute, marriage certificate and birth certificate when she applies for a passport in her maiden name the first time round, but there is no need to pay for a change of name deed.

bella*donna

My husband changed his by deed poll before we were married. He got all the papaerwork through and just sent copies off to change his driving licence etc. Had to do some things in person, like the bank. Wasn't very expensive either, £20ish if I recall.

terryw

Dave,

What a delightful reply. Absolutely correct without a wasted word.

you_wicked_gay

Thanks for the help everyone

Just rang my Mum to let her know, and she's pleased it isn't going to cost anything haha

terryw

vix2000 wrote: »

It would work as well if we weren't socially conditioned to take the fathers name. My point was not what we are, as a society, used to doing but what would be most practical. My argument is why should it be that the female has to take the name of the male, and not vice-versa? Only because of archaic tradition. Historically women were not allowed to divorce men, but this is not still so, because obviously it was deemed to be inappropriate. I am just throwing in the suggestion that the wife and children taking the mans name could be seen as being inappropriate in this day and age. Just my opinion though.

Thanks for that post vix.

I know that I am going well off-topic but there is a really smashing book/novel called "We really need to Talk about Kevin" by Lionel Shriver which deals with this topic. Bung it into a search engine.
Read the book. The best one that I have read in ages.

Apologies for the "plug" and going off-topic.