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Partner not contributing to house expenses. Is it fair?
Comments
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The flat generates income, the house does not.
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Such odd situation, I mean if he is 75 and you have a child that's 25 I assume you are in early 60s?
Talking strictly financially here you're likely to outlive him, do you know his will?
Anyway, it's only as fair as you want it to be, you need to have a chat - some people would be totally fine with that.
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After being with your partner for 25 years you should be able to sit down together and discuss this to come to an amicable agreement.
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Had a read of a post you made in 2011, and appears even back then you harboured resentment over the financial arrangements between you.
Evidently nothing has changed over the ensuing 14 years other than your rising irritation at your partner's inability not to recognise the unfairness of the current arrangements.
You have a curious arrangement. Unmarried, but despite sharing a child, there is something of a lodger/landlord in how you present the 'relationship'.
I suspect if you were to suggest he pay you rent as well as share bills, that might be a catalyst for a frank and forthright discussion between you and perhaps reveal that there is perhaps more of a fundamental rift between you, than even you consciously recognise.
That said, a discussion along the lines suggested by Savvy_Sue, is likely to be far more productive and less confrontational , if that is something you are seeking to avoid.
Incidentally if you decide you do have a relationship worth retaining, getting married or civil partnership would make a great deal of sense in many ways, not least being effective estate and tax planning.
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I do not think the OP is financially worse off. She owns 94% of a house which the partner has contributed towards by paying part of the mortgage when they had one. They are not married, so they are two single people living together.
I would just buy his 6% out and own it entirely. Then she has a house and he has a flat.
Continue to share the bills on the house.
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How does owning the house benefit her over him when they both live in it?
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Some people really are not thinking here.
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She has the equity in it and the security. She can sell it and downsize or she can raise money against it. He need have no say in the matter because it is her house.
He is, in effect, her lodger.
He has equity and security in his flat.
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Relationships don’t necessarily operate like that. He doesn’t just have equity in the flat, he has some income.
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The BIG problem is that we don't know whether there is a deed in trust defining the split after the first or second joint purchase.
Until the OP addresses this query, everything is speculation.
If you've have not made a mistake, you've made nothing0
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