Refund without Receipt?

BarryBlue

hollydays wrote: »

We know proof of payment can be shown in a number of ways, :Tand my point also was about goodwill gestures . If a breakdown was required, as part of the goodwill gesture, a bank statement wouldn't necessarily cut it.
There is also the issue of timescale, what administration had already been done, further fitting appointments for 6 people, made etc., bookings turned away.Presumbly it's not 2 years as in your daughters case.
The op is being a little economical with the truth, for " personal reasons".
It sounds like buyers remorse when the op sees something else he prefers elsewhere and then tries to post saying he's changed his mind because the service was bad and he " didn't like the suits" .

If he didn't like suits ,why pay anything..

I still don't think you get the point here. It may be that the OP acted in a rather strange way. Who knows why he cancelled the contract? However, irrespective of the reason for cancellation, the trader can only withhold that part of a deposit that covers any expenditure he has actually incurred as a result of that cancellation. As for 'breakdown of costs', it is up to the trader to submit that to the court if it goes to a hearing, and for the court to decide what is reasonable.

It seems you are disputing the point simply because you disagree with the law here. So all I can suggest is that you may wish to research the Consumer Rights Act and its associated Unfair Contract Terms legislation to avoid posting inaccurate advice.

Jumblebumble

BarryBlue wrote: »

I still don't think you get the point here. It may be that the OP acted in a rather strange way. Who knows why he cancelled the contract? However, irrespective of the reason for cancellation, the trader can only withhold that part of a deposit that covers any expenditure he has actually incurred as a result of that cancellation. As for 'breakdown of costs', it is up to the trader to submit that to the court if it goes to a hearing, and for the court to decide what is reasonable.

It seems you are disputing the point simply because you disagree with the law here. So all I can suggest is that you may wish to research the Consumer Rights Act and its associated Unfair Contract Terms legislation to avoid posting inaccurate advice.

Whilst all this may be true I suspect that the Shop owner will be looking to make more than £80.00 profit on the deal and as they are allowed to keep part of the deposit against loss of profit all this discussion about court is in my view irrelevant.
This is what Which say
"If you cancel the contract, the business is generally only entitled to keep or receive an amount sufficient to cover their actual losses that directly result from your cancellation.
This could include costs already incurred or loss of profit."
Please note that this contradicts your view as a loss of profit is not a cost actually incurred but Which believe it to be allowable.

Manxman_in_exile

Is there no such thing as a non-returnable* deposit then?


(*Except for costs already incurred or loss of profit)