Bought House

daryladvice

Hi thanks for the honest and helpful response. He did not declare it in writing but they did ask for origins of the money, (where it came from). As I understand to monitor anti-money laundering.

So they know money was transferred from his account to my mothers but that is where it ends, everything else is in my mothers name and paid from my mothers account. Only her name is on the deeds.

Again I am only asking so she knows where she stands. I respect helpful and genuine responses like yours, so much appreciated.

daryladvice

Yes, the solicitors did the checks of course. By law that has to be carried out before the purchase of the property.

It had to be proven where the money came from into my mother's bank account, this was supplied by her bf and submitted by my mother.

Again just looking for genuine replies to understand such a stance, my mother is very ill and suffers daily so I am trying to help her just understand her position.

G_M

daryladvice wrote: »

.... so I am trying to help her just understand her position.

Seems clear to me there are two ways of looking at this:

Morally, the ex is entitled to a share of the property (if not its entirety depending what % of the puchase price he paid) or the return of the money he paid.

He paid for the property because she could not. Correct me if I'm wrong, but had she had the money herself he would not have paid.

He did not register his ownership of the property because he could not. Again, correct me if I'm wrong, but had he been eligible to take (part) ownership of the Title he would have done so (and she would have agreed).

If that sums up the reality of the situation, she would be exploitative in the extreme if she now simply denied him either money or property and acted to keep both.



Legally however, it is less clear-cut. She is the sole registered owner. He may well be able to make a claim as Beneficial Owner, but the onus would be on him to prove that. A court action would be both expensive, and uncertain, however depending exactly how much money was at stake it might be worth his time/cost to go down that route.

Cheeky_Monkey

daryladvice wrote: »

Hi thanks for the honest and helpful response. He did not declare it in writing but they did ask for origins of the money, (where it came from). As I understand to monitor anti-money laundering.

So they know money was transferred from his account to my mothers but that is where it ends, everything else is in my mothers name and paid from my mothers account. Only her name is on the deeds.

Again I am only asking so she knows where she stands. I respect helpful and genuine responses like yours, so much appreciated.

I think she is potentially standing on dodgy ground.

Having paid for the house with, presumably no financial input from your mother, I think he has quite a good chance of proving a Beneficial Interest in it.

I imagine that a Court would take a very dim view of your mother kicking him out shortly after he bought her the house and may well therefore be inclined to rule in his favour.

Obviously, what she is contemplating is morally reprehensible but would also leave her totally responsible financially for the repairs/maintenance of the property.

The fact that she's ill is irrelevant IMO.

jimbog

Will you be persuading your mother to do the honourable thing?

Duckdodgers

I am shocked that anyone would think of doing this. If the house has been bought recently, the relationship is over and someone has to move out the person who did not pay for the property should go. It sounds like she tricked him into buying her a house by pretending he would also live there.
Unfortunately he is probably in a weak position legally as he was not eligible to buy the house or get the discount your mother would have been offered therefore he can't be named as the legal owner. He should watch who he trusts in future.

Fisa002

I honestly think your mother needs to be honest to him and tell him how she feels and what she is thinking of doing.

Somone has asked the question, how do you feel your mother should act in this case? Claim the house is hers and expect him to have no say after giving her (his probably hard earned) money? What advise are you contemplating on giving ?

seven-day-weekend

daryladvice wrote: »

I guess this is my first post here and hoping someone could shine some light on this. I feel I already know the answer but wanted to just clarify with those here that are much more clear of the ins and outs of such purchases.

So cut long story short....

My mum bought her house recently. Her boyfriend gave her the money to purchase the property. However, since its purchase, he has changed and become argumentative. I want to know, if the house is in my mum's name, paid for from her bank account, does this make her purchase completely hers? She is the only name on the house.

Just wanting to clarify this as in the event of her not wishing to be with him, would he have any hold on this property?

Hope that makes sense.

Is this a Right to Buy Council property?

If it is, and only your mum had the RTB, then only she can be on the deeds and she is the legal owner.

However morally she ought to give him his money back if they split up.