Bought House

daryladvice

I guess this is my first post here and hoping someone could shine some light on this. I feel I already know the answer but wanted to just clarify with those here that are much more clear of the ins and outs of such purchases.

So cut long story short....

My mum bought her house recently. Her boyfriend gave her the money to purchase the property. However, since its purchase, he has changed and become argumentative. I want to know, if the house is in my mum's name, paid for from her bank account, does this make her purchase completely hers? She is the only name on the house.

Just wanting to clarify this as in the event of her not wishing to be with him, would he have any hold on this property?

Hope that makes sense.

Fisa002

So basically he paid your mother cash to buy the house which is then put in your mums name?

I’d say it’s your mums but it does Depend whose name is on the title deeds.

fishpond

I think it is called theft.

Fisa002

Funny thing is you say ‘my mum bought HER house recently her bf gave her the money to purchase it’

Technically it’s your mums, but morally it should be her bf’s. I would feel sorry for him in this case that he didn’t put the house in his name and would recommend he got a solicitor involved against your mother.

G_M

daryladvice wrote: »

My mum bought her house recently. Her boyfriend gave her the money to purchase the property.
'gave'? Any conditions?
Lent? Wht was agreed?

Since the property is in her name, he would have to show either a Beneficial Ownership, or that the money was a loan, or similar.

Was a mortgage also involved? If so presumably in her name?

One assumes that someone did money laundering checks on this large cash sum.......

Aylesbury_Duck

daryladvice wrote: »

I guess this is my first post here and hoping someone could shine some light on this. I feel I already know the answer but wanted to just clarify with those here that are much more clear of the ins and outs of such purchases.

So cut long story short....

My mum bought her house recently. Her boyfriend gave her the money to purchase the property. However, since its purchase, he has changed and become argumentative. I want to know, if the house is in my mum's name, paid for from her bank account, does this make her purchase completely hers? She is the only name on the house.

Just wanting to clarify this as in the event of her not wishing to be with him, would he have any hold on this property?

Hope that makes sense.

Agree with fishpond. How strange that your mother wants to leave him after he’s bought her a house. Arguments tend to involve two parties.

maninthestreet

fishpond wrote: »

I think it is called theft.

how?????????

BorisThomson

There is more to this story.

Why did he give her the money, did he do so as a gift or a loan?

Why did he not buy the property himself?

In a situation such as this, it is not nearly as simple as whose name is on the deeds. The intentions of the parties are important, and unreasonable can result in hefty legal bills.

BorisThomson

* unreasonable behaviour

Stupid editing rules.

HampshireH

Being stupid enough to buy a house and put it in someone's name before altering your behaviour does not constitute theft by the recipient.

So much we aren't being told. However the OP has not said she doesn't want the partner there.
It sounds like the OP is questioning her rights should the situation change.

Cheeky_Monkey

I'm guessing that the OP's mother bought her Council house under RtB but didn't have any money so her boyfriend paid for it.

I'm also guessing that the reason it isn't in both their names is because he wasn't on the tenancy.

Am I right or making it up as I go along? :rotfl: