PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!

Freeholder's sublet fee

I own a leasehold flat which I rent out on Assured Shorthold Tenancies. The company that manages the freeholder's interest has written to me stating that I have to pay a fee every time I find a new tenant.

I have owned and rented out the flat for 9 years and they want to go back to the beginning with retrospective fees.

The only thing I can find in the lease which might allow them to charge a fee reads 'within one month after the date of every assignment death grant of probate or administrative assent transfer mortgage charge sub-lease or other event or document relating to the term hereby granted ...'

(yes it really reads like that, i.e. no commas)

(It goes on to say that I have to give notice to the Landlord, produce a copy of the document to their solicitor and pay a 'reasonable fee').

My question is, what do the words 'relating to the term hereby granted' mean. Obviously my 6 month assured shorthold tenancies don't relate to the whole of the 125 year term of the lease, so does that mean I don't have to comply with this requirement?
«1345

Comments

  • davidmcn
    davidmcn Posts: 23,596 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Obviously my 6 month assured shorthold tenancies don't relate to the whole of the 125 year term of the lease, so does that mean I don't have to comply with this requirement?
    No, they are each a sub-lease from your leasehold interest, so they do relate to your term.
  • mrschaucer
    mrschaucer Posts: 953 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 500 Posts Name Dropper
    "Within one month of every ... sub lease" (so within one month of your granting someone else an ASHT on your property, every time) you must comply with what your lease requires you to do, which is what is set out for you there - pay the fees etc.
    And yes, you are required to do it or you are in breach of your lease.
  • Yoga_cat
    Yoga_cat Posts: 20 Forumite
    "Assignment" is the bit that means what you do each time you enter into an AST with tenants.
  • G_M
    G_M Posts: 51,977 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    edited 1 May 2017 at 7:51PM
    Yoga_cat wrote: »
    "Assignment" is the bit that means what you do each time you enter into an AST with tenants.
    Does granting a tenancy really constitute assigning the lease? So the tenant could sell the lease on (for £X00,000)?
  • davidmcn
    davidmcn Posts: 23,596 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Yoga_cat wrote: »
    "Assignment" is the bit that means what you do each time you enter into an AST with tenants.
    No, assignment is a tenant transferring their interest to another tenant (i.e. selling the leasehold). Granting an AST is a subletting.
  • G_M
    G_M Posts: 51,977 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    davidmcn wrote: »
    No, assignment is a tenant transferring their interest to another tenant (i.e. selling the leasehold). Granting an AST is a subletting.
    though to be pedantic, is a lease not assigned in the same way each time it is sold on?
  • davidmcn
    davidmcn Posts: 23,596 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    G_M wrote: »
    though to be pedantic, is a lease not assigned in the same way each time it is sold on?
    I think that's what I said...any transfer of a leasehold interest is an assignment.
  • Yoga_cat
    Yoga_cat Posts: 20 Forumite
    Ah, okay, so it's "sub-lease" in the quoted clause.

    A leaseholder assigning their lease to somebody else would end their interest in the property and could only take place on a sale, is that right?
  • shortcrust
    shortcrust Posts: 2,697 Forumite
    Eighth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Combo Breaker Newshound!
    If I were the OP I'd be none the wiser.
  • scriv
    scriv Posts: 94 Forumite
    edited 2 May 2017 at 5:06AM
    Have you had a change of freeholder, misterstingy? If so, I don't think they are entitled to claim consent fees etc retrospectively for the time before they acquired the freehold - happy to be corrected of course by those who know better.

    Incidentally, the lack of commas is usual in such legal documents. It was explained to me once that it was to prevent confusion!
This discussion has been closed.
Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 351.4K Banking & Borrowing
  • 253.3K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 453.8K Spending & Discounts
  • 244.4K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 599.6K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 177.1K Life & Family
  • 257.9K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16.2K Discuss & Feedback
  • 37.6K Read-Only Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.