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water bill/unmetered/empty property/rateable value

marc3
Posts: 316 Forumite


in Water bills
Similar-but different question/thoughts to other recent thread in unmetered property -hence new thread .
any thoughts/guidance/experience of following situation
am landlord of property .
property currently empty /no water usage and is between tenants .
as in past-we simply have notified the water company .
property is unmetered (they cant fit one )
for last 22 years of ownership we have done same-notified water co between tenants -and no charge .
this time-we have had whacking bill (and no usage)
water company are throwing at us-if unmetered its based on rateable value.
that is true -but i regard that in instances of where property is occupied and water is being used .
not when its empty .
i continually ask why the 'change'-exactly same situation as last 22 years-and never been charged before where no usage/empty .
getting no where and its 'stalemate'.
i have paid the the standing charge (albeit never asked to previously .)and have no issue with that,but i am refusing to pay for a service not being used-and maintain the rateable value thing applies to an occupied property-not when its completely empty/no usage .
loggerheads .
again-no different a situation to last 22 years-and this rateable value thing is not a new thing-
anybody had similar experience/thoughts/ guidance ?
am i being unreasonable ?
many thanks
any thoughts/guidance/experience of following situation

am landlord of property .
property currently empty /no water usage and is between tenants .
as in past-we simply have notified the water company .
property is unmetered (they cant fit one )
for last 22 years of ownership we have done same-notified water co between tenants -and no charge .
this time-we have had whacking bill (and no usage)
water company are throwing at us-if unmetered its based on rateable value.
that is true -but i regard that in instances of where property is occupied and water is being used .
not when its empty .
i continually ask why the 'change'-exactly same situation as last 22 years-and never been charged before where no usage/empty .
getting no where and its 'stalemate'.
i have paid the the standing charge (albeit never asked to previously .)and have no issue with that,but i am refusing to pay for a service not being used-and maintain the rateable value thing applies to an occupied property-not when its completely empty/no usage .
loggerheads .
again-no different a situation to last 22 years-and this rateable value thing is not a new thing-
anybody had similar experience/thoughts/ guidance ?
am i being unreasonable ?
many thanks
0
Comments
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I suspect the water board will maintain that as there is no water meter they can't prove either way. Just like a gym or Netflix, they have provided a service (in this case access to 'unlimited' water), whether you used that service or not is irrelevant.
I am an unmetered/assessed charge customer and I don't receive a refund if I go on holiday (I wish) and again, they'd have no way of knowing if I did or not. Unfortunately as you probably know, we can't have nice things in life because there are plenty of people who would heavily abuse such an exception.
Hell, I don't even get a discount during the hosepipe ban that's been running for the last 3 months! At least metered customers pay less for their reduced usage. We're told to use less, but pay the same!
*ahem* went off on a bit of a tangent there.
Personally I think you have it the wrong way round - I think repeatedly pointing out that you haven't paid for water during void periods for the last 22 years is an... interesting... tactic and risky (though in reality, I doubt they'll bother pursuing historic issues like that).
Not even paying standing charges (until just now) is pretty incredulous, I'm amazed they allowed that to happen. I suspect you don't do the same with the gas/electric, despite the principle being the same.
Know what you don't1
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