CC payment surcharge - have I invalidated my 0% interest offer on CC?

RNV

Hello, looking  for some reassurance please (as otherwise will have to wait until the next CC statement to find out...).

I've just made a CC payment to an airline directly (not a TA) to add luggage to my flight tickets bought long time ago on a debit card. They asked for £2.50 CC processing fee - which was fine, I was ok to pay as suits me better on CC ... 

But after all clicks  were done and payment completed, I scratched my head whether it was a big mistake that may cost me much more than £2.50. 

The CC is on 0% interest with 10 months (and some £balance to clear within those 10 months) still left. Does anybody know whether this CC payment fee is recorded as part of the purchase transaction or shown separately and by any chance could be treated as cash advance by the CC thus invalidating my 0% interest offer ?

I've checked my CC account online -  still pending so hard to be sure

Thanks

Brie

I thought that it was illegal to charge a fee for using a CC.  

0% interest for what?  Purchases made in that 10 month period?  In which case this should be viewed as a purchase and not a cash advance.

Even if it was a 0% balance transfer offer making this purchase wouldn't invalidate the offer.  It might just mean that you are being charged interest from the date of the purchase at whatever the normal rate is.  The thing to do then is to find out on what date you can pay money on to your CC to limit the interest charged for this purchase.  It might be today.  It might be when your statement is produced.  What you don't want to do is pay something and have that applied to your 0% portion rather than the purchase itself. 

Hope that makes sense! 

born_again

Brie said:

I thought that it was illegal to charge a fee for using a CC.  

0% interest for what?  Purchases made in that 10 month period?  In which case this should be viewed as a purchase and not a cash advance.

Even if it was a 0% balance transfer offer making this purchase wouldn't invalidate the offer.  It might just mean that you are being charged interest from the date of the purchase at whatever the normal rate is.  The thing to do then is to find out on what date you can pay money on to your CC to limit the interest charged for this purchase.  It might be today.  It might be when your statement is produced.  What you don't want to do is pay something and have that applied to your 0% portion rather than the purchase itself. 

Hope that makes sense! 

It is. Unless it is a business credit card.

RNV

Thanks. 0% on purchases (there was an offer for BT as well but i didnt use it).  It is a personal Barclaycard.   Hopefully, will show as a purchase - pending transaction shows as one line total, not split between the actual purchase value and the fee.

lr1277

For the 0% purchase cards I have seen, they allow minimum payments for say 1 year for purchases made in the first say 3 months. 

I am confused by the way you have described the offer.
Are you within the purchasing period for the offer? And by that I mean not the period for 0%.

RNV

Yes, within the offer - it was smth very generous like 0% purchases over 18 month, so i have got about 4k sitting there and keep on using for purchases.  Will pay in full when time comes but will have to rearrange a few things if have to pay the full amount now. Will keep on checking how this pending transaction lands. 

molerat

Which airline ?  As has been mentioned earlier a credit card surcharge is prohibited in UK and EU.

The transaction should be treated as a purchase.

RNV

Thanks. INot Uk and not Eu - Norwegian - so wont be covered.

DullGreyGuy

Paying a processing fee to the merchant isnt going to be a breach of your card's terms so won't threaten the 0% free period.

born_again

RNV said:

Thanks. INot Uk and not Eu - Norwegian - so wont be covered.

So that fee should be built into the total price.