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Clean Break Consent Order question

DrPepper1234
Posts: 12 Forumite

Hi all, more of a scenario. A clean break consent order covers both parties for future claims ie. inheritance, etc. but what if after clean break is completed and an old debt that both parties were unaware of from the marriage comes up? are both parties liable even though there is a consent order, or, if the debt is in one persons name, is only that person liable?
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DrPepper1234 said:Hi all, more of a scenario. A clean break consent order covers both parties for future claims ie. inheritance, etc. but what if after clean break is completed and an old debt that both parties were unaware of from the marriage comes up? are both parties liable even though there is a consent order, or, if the debt is in one persons name, is only that person liable?0
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Check credit records etc prior to agreeing to and signing the financial consent order. You only get one bite of the cherry.0
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Bradden said:DrPepper1234 said:Hi all, more of a scenario. A clean break consent order covers both parties for future claims ie. inheritance, etc. but what if after clean break is completed and an old debt that both parties were unaware of from the marriage comes up? are both parties liable even though there is a consent order, or, if the debt is in one persons name, is only that person liable?0
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If this was an old debt neither knew about, I'd be inclined to send a prove it letter before going any further, to confirm it actually belongs to them and is enforceable.
Under English law there is nothing to stop a debt collector resurrecting a statute barred or unenforceable debt, sending letters to old addresses and then trying to collect the debt. So make sure it's owed first as this sort of mugging is legal.If you've have not made a mistake, you've made nothing0 -
DrPepper1234 said:Bradden said:DrPepper1234 said:Hi all, more of a scenario. A clean break consent order covers both parties for future claims ie. inheritance, etc. but what if after clean break is completed and an old debt that both parties were unaware of from the marriage comes up? are both parties liable even though there is a consent order, or, if the debt is in one persons name, is only that person liable?
If addendum's can be unilaterally added to allow future claims, the whole thing becomes pointless.
As Hoenir says, you only get one bit of the cherry.
If the shoe was on the other foot and the ex-partner contacted you asking you to pay an old debt in their name, would you? (Obviously since you're asking the question the other way round it's in your interests to pretend you would, but if we're honest with ourselves, we know most people wouldn't unless they were very amicable/generous).Know what you don't3
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