Freetrade free share - capital gains tax

tg99

When you sell a free share awarded by Freetrade is the base cost zero or the market value of the shares at the time they were awarded? 

Malthusian

I would say zero.

HMRC says: "The amount of allowable expenditure will normally be the amount that the acquirer expended. However, in certain circumstances you must substitute the market value of the asset acquired for the actual consideration, see CG14530."
So the default assumption is zero unless you can prove that market value applies. Do any of those circumstances apply? Not as I see it. The closest you would get is "The transaction is otherwise than by way of a bargain made at arm’s length, in particular... a gift." But Freetrade's free share offer is a bargain at arm's length - it's a "cashback" offer in the hope / expectation that you will pay them more in fees than they spend on your free share.