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Different 0% expiry dates how to pay when 1st ends

I have a credit card that is about to have its first promo rate expire in May as screenshot… I have been paying it down about £200 a month and the payment gets applied to the highest balance or interest first. 

If I do a balance transfer of £1000 on 26/5/23 will that payment be applied to the £627 that I owe as that will switch to svr which is around 22% or is there a way I can call and ask them to apply my payment to that specific part of the credit? 

I hope that makes sense. I do have enough credit available to balance transfer the whole £5.5k if I need to but ideally I want to pay this down in time for the Sep 2024 date… if I do a BT I’ll just end up lowering my payments and making it last longer. 
Mortgage started August 2020 £69,700
Mortgage ends Aug 2050 MFW: Aug 2027 
Current Balance: £60,200 (59.9% LTV)
MFW2020 #156 £723.13
MFW2021 #26 £1184.71
MFW2022 #11 £197.87
MFW2023 £785
MFW 2024 £528.15

Determined to make it! 

Comments

  • Chrysalis
    Chrysalis Posts: 4,248 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts Photogenic Name Dropper
    As I understand it credit card providers will typically apply payments to the highest interest part of debt first so I would expect the £627 to go towards the £754 balance which looks like its not at 0%.

    Interesting statement to give you that info, one of the things I find annoying with card providers is I have to make a note of my 0% deals when I first accept them, as they then dont appear on statement, if I am lucky they send reminder when its about to end, but never seen them summarised on a statement before.

    If the rate of the £627 is going to be higher than the £754, and they refuse your instruction, then you could wait for the 0% to end and then pay it on the first interest bearing month, would then have to eat one month worth of interest though.
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