We'd like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum... Read More »
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
Purchase Taking Longer Than Expected. Cashing in Mortgage before it expires. Where to put money?
Comments
-
Ah, if you mean the mortgage to buy property 2 is in fact to be secured over property 1 then yes, you could in theory do this, depending on how much reassurance the lender needs about what you're actually going to do with the money (as I expect they've lent on the basis it was for the property purchase).1
-
Flugelhorn said:I did this - took out mortgage on home I owned in order to buy second home unfortunately the onward purchase didn't happen so ended up with 180K in the bank - it was an offset account so fully offset and no interest to pay, left it there until we sorted another purchase
tricky now to get enough interest to cover costs0 -
user1977 said:Ah, if you mean the mortgage to buy property 2 is in fact to be secured over property 1 then yes, you could in theory do this, depending on how much reassurance the lender needs about what you're actually going to do with the money (as I expect they've lent on the basis it was for the property purchase).
The money borrowed will of course be used to purchase a property...not on that classic car I've always wanted!0 -
CookhamDude said:user1977 said:Ah, if you mean the mortgage to buy property 2 is in fact to be secured over property 1 then yes, you could in theory do this, depending on how much reassurance the lender needs about what you're actually going to do with the money (as I expect they've lent on the basis it was for the property purchase).Yes- you say that, but how can we really be sure?More to nthe point, how can your mortgage lender really be sure......?
1
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply

Categories
- All Categories
- 351.2K Banking & Borrowing
- 253.2K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 453.7K Spending & Discounts
- 244.2K Work, Benefits & Business
- 599.3K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 177.1K Life & Family
- 257.7K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.2K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.6K Read-Only Boards