PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.

Reference to 'loan note' in lease / shared freehold - what could it actually be?

Hi,

I have been ploughing through all of the documents that my solicitors have sent me regarding my flat purchase. It's a shared freehold and within the Deed of Variation (issued when it became share of freehold) there is a clause which states;

"Not at any time to assign or transfer the whole or part of the flat unless contemporaneously with such assignment or transfer the Lessee assigns the loan note dated the same date as this deed in accordance with the Company's Memorandum of Articles of Association so long as that loan note is unredeemed"

TIA

Comments

  • eddddy
    eddddy Posts: 17,780 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    edited 8 August 2021 at 10:31PM


    As far as I understand it, a Loan Note is like an 'IOU'. 

    So the leaseholder lent the freehold company some money at some point - so the freehold company owes the current leaseholder that money. The clause you quote says that, if you buy the flat, any money still owed will become owed to you instead.


    I think there may be different reasons why this loan would come about - but one reason is as follows:

    • Let's say the 10 leasehold flat owners want to form a company to buy the building's freehold - and the freehold costs £50k.
    • So each leaseholder lends the company £5k (and gets a Loan Note or 'IOU' confirming this)
    • As the freehold company earns ground rents and/or lease extension fees - they gradually pay back the Lone Notes / IOUs 

    It's done this way for tax efficiency. If you lend money, and then it gets repaid - there's no tax to pay.


    The alternative might be for the 10 leaseholders to each buy £5k worth of shares in the freehold company (to raise the £50k), and then get ground rents and/or lease extension fees paid as dividends. But dividends would be subject to income tax.


    But I'm no expert in this...



  • Thanks, that makes sense - the solicitors are querying it with the vendors solicitors but I wondered if it was something others had seen.

    I just want to be sure that I'm not liable for some kind of debt!
Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 349.9K Banking & Borrowing
  • 252.7K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 453.1K Spending & Discounts
  • 242.9K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 619.8K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 176.4K Life & Family
  • 255.9K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
  • 15.1K Coronavirus Support Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.