Possible Racial Bias with Redundancy

Bungle5393

bradders1983 said:

In Scotland, probably. It certainly isnt on the official ONS list for England

https://www.ons.gov.uk/methodology/classificationsandstandards/measuringequality/ethnicgroupnationalidentityandreligion

Therefore: irrelevant, assuming you are in England.

I live in Scotland, worked for an English-based company.

Bungle5393

Marcon said:

Bungle5393 said:

I was the only Scottish person in our team of 6. The selection criteria that were used to select which 3 of us were to be made redundant placed me at a disadvantage, and I also don't believe I was scored fairly as part of the process.

Upon receiving this information, it now seems this was potentially racially-motivated. Obviously I can't prove it 100%, but how many organisations would condone 2 x HR people (who should really know better) using a racially-based nickname to refer to one of the senior managers and think that was acceptable?

I'm in the process of lodging an Employment Tribunal (just finished period of early conciliation - they didn't respond), and wondered how people think this term would be viewed by a tribunal.

In such a tiny group, many people will be the only one from a particular ethnic background/sexual orientation/have children/sport red hair...no statistical significance whatsoever.

I can't see the tribunal giving it a second thought.

True that it is a small sample size.

But surely they would have to consider the use of such a derogatory term used by 2 of the people involved in the decision to select me for redundancy? 

What if we had an Asian gentleman on the team who was referred to as "King of Corner Shops"? Surely that would be equally racist?

What if there was only 1 female on our team and she was told that "she was too emotional" and was told this was a factor in why she was selected also? Surely that would be evidence of gender-bias?

bradders1983

Bungle5393 said:

bradders1983 said:

In Scotland, probably. It certainly isnt on the official ONS list for England

https://www.ons.gov.uk/methodology/classificationsandstandards/measuringequality/ethnicgroupnationalidentityandreligion

Therefore: irrelevant, assuming you are in England.

I live in Scotland, worked for an English-based company.

An English based company who will use English ONS ethnicity definitions then.

Mickey666

Bungle5393 said:

Marcon said:

Bungle5393 said:

I was the only Scottish person in our team of 6. The selection criteria that were used to select which 3 of us were to be made redundant placed me at a disadvantage, and I also don't believe I was scored fairly as part of the process.

Upon receiving this information, it now seems this was potentially racially-motivated. Obviously I can't prove it 100%, but how many organisations would condone 2 x HR people (who should really know better) using a racially-based nickname to refer to one of the senior managers and think that was acceptable?

I'm in the process of lodging an Employment Tribunal (just finished period of early conciliation - they didn't respond), and wondered how people think this term would be viewed by a tribunal.

In such a tiny group, many people will be the only one from a particular ethnic background/sexual orientation/have children/sport red hair...no statistical significance whatsoever.

I can't see the tribunal giving it a second thought.

True that it is a small sample size.

But surely they would have to consider the use of such a derogatory term used by 2 of the people involved in the decision to select me for redundancy? 

What if we had an Asian gentleman on the team who was referred to as "King of Corner Shops"? Surely that would be equally racist?

What if there was only 1 female on our team and she was told that "she was too emotional" and was told this was a factor in why she was selected also? Surely that would be evidence of gender-bias?

Why do you assume that being ‘too emotional’ should be a female trait and therefore evidence of gender-bias?

AskAsk

i don't believe you have a case for racism as scottish is not a race to be factual 

your grievance is that they may have selected you through discrimination that you are scot and they don't like scot.  but this would be a weak point and difficult to prove.

the HR employees who use the terminolgy will be in serious trouble with their company as it is not best practice to nickname people in that manner.  they might as well refer to an employee as 'that fat bloke'     and that in itself is a disciplinary matter but as far as you are concerned, you may struggle to get any positive outcome.

Bungle5393

Mickey666 said:

Bungle5393 said:

Marcon said:

Bungle5393 said:

I was the only Scottish person in our team of 6. The selection criteria that were used to select which 3 of us were to be made redundant placed me at a disadvantage, and I also don't believe I was scored fairly as part of the process.

Upon receiving this information, it now seems this was potentially racially-motivated. Obviously I can't prove it 100%, but how many organisations would condone 2 x HR people (who should really know better) using a racially-based nickname to refer to one of the senior managers and think that was acceptable?

I'm in the process of lodging an Employment Tribunal (just finished period of early conciliation - they didn't respond), and wondered how people think this term would be viewed by a tribunal.

In such a tiny group, many people will be the only one from a particular ethnic background/sexual orientation/have children/sport red hair...no statistical significance whatsoever.

I can't see the tribunal giving it a second thought.

True that it is a small sample size.

But surely they would have to consider the use of such a derogatory term used by 2 of the people involved in the decision to select me for redundancy? 

What if we had an Asian gentleman on the team who was referred to as "King of Corner Shops"? Surely that would be equally racist?

What if there was only 1 female on our team and she was told that "she was too emotional" and was told this was a factor in why she was selected also? Surely that would be evidence of gender-bias?

Why do you assume that being ‘too emotional’ should be a female trait and therefore evidence of gender-bias?

Because she was the only female on our team and this is what she was told, when none of the other members on the team had this mentioned. Her recent return from mat leave was also brought into it.

Bungle5393

AskAsk said:

i don't believe you have a case for racism as scottish is not a race to be factual 

your grievance is that they may have selected you through discrimination that you are scot and they don't like scot.  but this would be a weak point and difficult to prove.

the HR employees who use the terminolgy will be in serious trouble with their company as it is not best practice to nickname people in that manner.  they might as well refer to an employee as 'that fat bloke'     and that in itself is a disciplinary matter but as far as you are concerned, you may struggle to get any positive outcome.

To be fair, they could have referred to me as that as well haha.

I suspect they will probably try to settle rather than go to tribunal. That's obviously up to them, I was just curious to see how others would perceive this.

bradders1983

That is still not evidence of gender bias. If only one female works there you could just claim that ANY negative is seen as a gender bias, and clearly this would be stupid.

Stenwold

Bungle5393 said:

Marcon said:

Bungle5393 said:

I was the only Scottish person in our team of 6. The selection criteria that were used to select which 3 of us were to be made redundant placed me at a disadvantage, and I also don't believe I was scored fairly as part of the process.

Upon receiving this information, it now seems this was potentially racially-motivated. Obviously I can't prove it 100%, but how many organisations would condone 2 x HR people (who should really know better) using a racially-based nickname to refer to one of the senior managers and think that was acceptable?

I'm in the process of lodging an Employment Tribunal (just finished period of early conciliation - they didn't respond), and wondered how people think this term would be viewed by a tribunal.

In such a tiny group, many people will be the only one from a particular ethnic background/sexual orientation/have children/sport red hair...no statistical significance whatsoever.

I can't see the tribunal giving it a second thought.

True that it is a small sample size.

But surely they would have to consider the use of such a derogatory term used by 2 of the people involved in the decision to select me for redundancy? 

What if we had an Asian gentleman on the team who was referred to as "King of Corner Shops"? Surely that would be equally racist?

What if there was only 1 female on our team and she was told that "she was too emotional" and was told this was a factor in why she was selected also? Surely that would be evidence of gender-bias?

You really think that's the same?

Marcon

Bungle5393 said:

Marcon said:

Bungle5393 said:

I was the only Scottish person in our team of 6. The selection criteria that were used to select which 3 of us were to be made redundant placed me at a disadvantage, and I also don't believe I was scored fairly as part of the process.

Upon receiving this information, it now seems this was potentially racially-motivated. Obviously I can't prove it 100%, but how many organisations would condone 2 x HR people (who should really know better) using a racially-based nickname to refer to one of the senior managers and think that was acceptable?

I'm in the process of lodging an Employment Tribunal (just finished period of early conciliation - they didn't respond), and wondered how people think this term would be viewed by a tribunal.

In such a tiny group, many people will be the only one from a particular ethnic background/sexual orientation/have children/sport red hair...no statistical significance whatsoever.

I can't see the tribunal giving it a second thought.

True that it is a small sample size.

But surely they would have to consider the use of such a derogatory term used by 2 of the people involved in the decision to select me for redundancy? 

What if we had an Asian gentleman on the team who was referred to as "King of Corner Shops"? Surely that would be equally racist?

What if there was only 1 female on our team and she was told that "she was too emotional" and was told this was a factor in why she was selected also? Surely that would be evidence of gender-bias?

What's derogatory about 'King of Scotland'?