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Can the Council Force to sell house to pay for Care Home?

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  • hb2
    hb2 Posts: 1,399 Forumite
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    elsien wrote: »
    Age isn't relevant if the disregard is due to incapacity.

    Thank you for clarifying that. In that case, I guess it comes down to the definition of 'vulnerable'. I see that the OP is already assessed as having 'limited capacity for work'.
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  • lees80
    lees80 Posts: 160 Forumite
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    Limited capacity for work is not the same as being vulnerable.

    The OP isn't going to get a definitive answer from anyone on here, need to seek professional advice.
  • elsien
    elsien Posts: 36,139 Forumite
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    The definition is incapacitated, not vulnerable, and the information needed is in the links already provided.
    All shall be well, and all shall be well, and all manner of things shall be well.

    Pedant alert - it's could have, not could of.
  • Sea_Shell
    Sea_Shell Posts: 10,030 Forumite
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    The other problem is, even if the house is disregarded, Mum could be placed by the Local Authority into somewhere you're not happy with, in terms of location and/or level of care.

    In these circumstances, it may well be that the "best interests of mum" IS for the house to be sold and her assets used for better care.

    Obviously this will clash with what's best FOR YOU, but that shouldn't be your consideration if dealing as PoA.
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  • I_Love_comps
    I_Love_comps Posts: 2,430 Senior Ambassador
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    The answer is yes your local authority can force you to sell your mothers property - depending on her finances.

    I know as I have had to do this for a very close relative of mine
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  • knightstyle
    knightstyle Posts: 7,228 Forumite
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    I thought this problem depends on how the house was purchased? If they are tenants in common on the deeds this can change things?
    So opp what do the deeds say about this?
  • AdrianC
    AdrianC Posts: 42,189 Forumite
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    I thought this problem depends on how the house was purchased? If they are tenants in common on the deeds this can change things?
    So opp what do the deeds say about this?
    "They"? The mother is the sole owner since the father's death, isn't she?
  • elsien
    elsien Posts: 36,139 Forumite
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    The OP hasn't answered the question if the house passed to mum in its entirety or not.
    This could have been part of the planning at the time the wills were written.
    All shall be well, and all shall be well, and all manner of things shall be well.

    Pedant alert - it's could have, not could of.
  • foxy-stoat
    foxy-stoat Posts: 6,879 Forumite
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    AdrianC wrote: »
    "They"? The mother is the sole owner since the father's death, isn't she?

    If they bought the property as tenants in common in 1977 ( which is unlikely ) then the Dad can leave his half to who ever and the council cannot take his half. If it was joint tenants then the Mum will be sole owner.
  • Cakeguts
    Cakeguts Posts: 7,627 Forumite
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    It is a complex problem that needs to start with the OP finding accommodation of their own. They are not going to be able to continue to live there when mum dies or the brother will not be able to get his inheritance. The first thing to do is for the OP to source either by buying of through the council appropriate accommodation on the basis that they are going to become homeless when mum goes into residential care.



    When mum goes into residential care her money from the sale of her house can be used to fund her new housing arrangements. It is her money to be used for her benefit. She could have spent it all on cruises instead she is going to spend it on herself and getting good care.



    When mum dies what is left will be divided between the OP and the brother.
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