We'd like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum... Read More »
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
We're aware that some users are experiencing technical issues which the team are working to resolve. See the Community Noticeboard for more info. Thank you for your patience.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
Splitting & Gifting A Property
Options
Comments
-
trickydicky802 wrote: »If I did then it wasn't deliberate, just something I missed through not being fluent in CGT issues. If I was then I wouldn't be here.
Anyway, I'm now thinking that there are no CGT issues arising because the entire property is one single title so all of it must be my main residence.
https://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/discussion/6037731
However, I now understand that if I were to split it into two titles then this could be problematic for my son if he inherits the property as two legally separate properties, because then he wouldn't be able to occupy both of them as his main residence, giving rise to potential CGT liabilities in the future . . . . unless, of course, he was to re-join them into one single title again! (no, let's not go there!)
The Land Registry is a complete red herring in this situation. I know, for example, that my local council has a title which covers an entire estate of houses. There is no way that you could argue that this all amounted to one property.
It’s going to be a very objective test, based on the facts, so:
1) It has it’s own council tax banding;
2) It seemingly has its own utility supplies/phone line etc;
3) Whilst there is an interconnecting door, as you say, this can be locked from either side so you could essentially be denied entry;
4) The property is occupied so therefore you could not really use it as your own (you couldn’t just decide to sleep in the cottage bedroom one night etc).
My view would therefore be that it is a disposal for the purposes of CGT.
However you may not have any tax to pay. You don’t mention (or if you do I’ve missed it and I apologise) whether you’re married and own the property jointly with your spouse? If so you would be jointly gifting it and therefore the gain would have to be more than £24,000 (2 x £12,000 nil rate band) before any tax is payable.
From the sale price (which as you are connected persons is the open market value) you can deduct the price you paid to purchase that part of the property. You can also deduct that part of the properties share of the purchase costs (stamp duty, legal fees etc) and the costs of any improvement (but not maintenance) works. When all of this and your annual allowance has been deducted, you may not have any CGT to pay.
Also, depending on the size of your estate, this may not be the most tax effective way to do things. If the assets you own are worth less than £475,000 (being the IHT nil rate band of £325,000 plus the current £150,000 residence nil rate band, which increase to £175,000 next year and then rises with inflation) then you won’t pay any IHT. If you are married and the first spouse that dies leaves their entire estate to the other then when the surviving spouse dies the estate would have to be worth more than £950,000 before any IHT is payable (nil rate band of £650,000 following application of spousal exemption and transfer and property nil rate band of £300,000 following spousal exemption and transfer).0 -
Just to correct one point, the annexe does have utilities but they are all shared with the main house and they are all in my (or my wife's) name, ie there is only a single water, gas and electricity meter for the entire property.
I find it hard to believe that the single legal title is a 'red herring'.
If you are correct about two council taxes meaning it must be two properties, wouldn't that mean that two lots of SDLT would be payable on purchase? (there weren't). But how would each part be individually valued given that it is legally impossible to individually sell either property (without splitting the title)? And even if two properties were aggregated into a single title (like your council estate example), wouldn't each separate dwelling be identified on the title? (they're not)?
Also, if they were two legally separate properties, how could the local council grant a council tax exemption for 'dependent parents' living in a self-contained annexe? A legally separate dwelling surely cannot be an annexe of another property, by definition.
http://www.council-tax.com/dependantrelativeexemptions.html0
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply

Categories
- All Categories
- 351K Banking & Borrowing
- 253.1K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 453.6K Spending & Discounts
- 244K Work, Benefits & Business
- 598.9K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 176.9K Life & Family
- 257.3K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.6K Read-Only Boards