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£1000 fridge broken after 2 years
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Andersitt
Posts: 9 Forumite
Our fridge isn’t working properly after two years. We’ve had an engineer come to do a repair and he said he’s found a fault (nothing we could have done) and it’s unrepairable.
Does anyone know how much we should expect to get back under the consumer rights act please?
Does anyone know how much we should expect to get back under the consumer rights act please?
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There is no set formula. Did he say it was an inherent fault?0
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Our fridge isn’t working properly after two years. We’ve had an engineer come to do a repair and he said he’s found a fault (nothing we could have done) and it’s unrepairable.
Does anyone know how much we should expect to get back under the consumer rights act please?
If the fault is an inherent one (and the onus is on you to demonstrate that it is, perhaps by using the report from your technician) then the retailer may choose to repair it (doesn't seem likely if it's unrepairable), replace it or offer a refund minus something for wear, tear and two years' use.
If the fault wasn't present at the time of sale, then you are entitled to nothing.0 -
Well the same model is still on sale for £1000.
I don’t think you’re correct in saying that we’re entitled to nothing. The sale of goods act states that products must last a reasonable amount of time and under EU law there’s a case for up to two years post sale.
I’m already aware that our consumer rights say we will be entitled to something but finding it difficult to find out how much.
The engineer said he will put in the report that it’s an inherent fault with the product.0 -
Sorry, meant to say up to 6 years.0
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I would get a second opinion. Repair mechanics are all too quick to pronounce that something cannot be repaired these days as often they get customers who want to hear that they need a new car, fridge or whatever and do not want to be bothered with a repair.
He has made a judgement that it cannot be repaired. He might mean he cannot repair it or that he thinks it is not worth repairing because it will cost more than what he would be willing to pay to fix it. He should quote you what it will cost for him to repair it and let you decide whether you want it repaired or not.0 -
Your interpretation of the CRA is incorrect0
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Not according to Martin Lewis on the MSE website, and out of warrantee repairs highlighted in the telegraph arrival which I can send the link for but is easily searchable.0
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Aylesbury_Duck wrote: »If the fault wasn't present at the time of sale, then you are entitled to nothing.
To clarify this, the exact fault does not need to be present at the time of sale. Only the cause of the fault must be present at the time of sale.
For example, a PC could be sold with a defective cooling fan. The PC may work initially, but subsequently fail due to overheating. The consumer would still be entitled to a remedy; the exact fault wasn't there at the time of sale, but the cause of the fault was inherent.0 -
Not according to Martin Lewis on the MSE website, and out of warrantee repairs highlighted in the telegraph arrival which I can send the link for but is easily searchable.
Your quoting the correct legislation; it's the Consumer Rights Act 2015 that applies to this and not the Sales of good Act.
You need to make sure you use the correct legislation when contacting the company or they will think you don't know what your talking about.0 -
I’m already aware that our consumer rights say we will be entitled to something but finding it difficult to find out how much.
There is no set amount. All the Consumer Rights Act says is that "any refund to the consumer may be reduced by a deduction for use, to take account of the use the consumer has had of the goods in the period since they were delivered".
See what the retailer offers you. You may want to assume a 6 year lifespan and so request 66% refund. They will probably offer less. Also be prepared to price up what a refund in retailer vouchers would mean for you - some may offer a larger amount if you agree to vouchers.0
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