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Car On Finance with broken engine
Hiya
Need some advise, bought my Vauxhall insignia 3 years ago and had it on a 5 years finance deal, took out the extended warranty and gap insurance.
About 5 weeks ago had a issue with the car where is struggled to start or wouldn't start at all, got the car recovered to my local trust a trader garage who after having it 9 days found that the timing belt had jumped on the crank shaft a couple of notches, but could identify the actual reason for this so they replaced the water pump and timing belt, which seems to fix the problem and got it serviced.
So last week at work the car when started the engine had some weird vibration, re started it and everything seemed fine, until I got nearly home when I could hear a tapping noise and the engine didn't sound good by the time I got home.
Following day I tried to get the car back to my normal garage but they where very busy, so found another garage who in the end found the bearings on the cam shaft was the actual issue, so now I'm left with a car that needs a new engine and 2 years left on my finance agreement.
So first is the original garage liable? Secondly what do I do with the car as I can't sell it due to the 2 years finance still on it?
Need some advise, bought my Vauxhall insignia 3 years ago and had it on a 5 years finance deal, took out the extended warranty and gap insurance.
About 5 weeks ago had a issue with the car where is struggled to start or wouldn't start at all, got the car recovered to my local trust a trader garage who after having it 9 days found that the timing belt had jumped on the crank shaft a couple of notches, but could identify the actual reason for this so they replaced the water pump and timing belt, which seems to fix the problem and got it serviced.
So last week at work the car when started the engine had some weird vibration, re started it and everything seemed fine, until I got nearly home when I could hear a tapping noise and the engine didn't sound good by the time I got home.
Following day I tried to get the car back to my normal garage but they where very busy, so found another garage who in the end found the bearings on the cam shaft was the actual issue, so now I'm left with a car that needs a new engine and 2 years left on my finance agreement.
So first is the original garage liable? Secondly what do I do with the car as I can't sell it due to the 2 years finance still on it?
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Comments
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Is the first garage liable... did they cause the damage?0
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That's what I'm asking they didn't but failed to find the fault (1st garage)0
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No, they aren't liable.
And the simple answer is that you have two more years finance on a car that is of seriously diminished value unless you fix it. So you fix it, or come to an agreement with the finance house to terminate the finance early, then sell it. Either way is going to cost you. Did nobody explain that maintenance and repairs were your responsibility?0 -
Sounds like a secondhand engine from a reliable source will be your best bet."There are not enough superlatives in the English language to describe a 'Princess Coronation' locomotive in full cry. We shall never see their like again". O S Nock0
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I believe you can hand back a car on credit after you have paid half of the payments. (Not sure what happens if it needs a new engine.)0
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Sounds to me as if when the belt jumped piston hit the valves and has either bent a valve or damaged the cam followers etc. Im surprised it even started0
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Stick a new head on it..Censorship Reigns Supreme in Troll City...0
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We after reading a few articles this fault is common on Vauxhall insignia's and a design flaw. But my point is the first garage failed to correctly find the fault which they were instructed to do so.
It's easy to say it's the owners responsibly, you get it serviced when you should, get it in the garage when it doesn't sound right, so you expect the fault to be found and fixed, not finding out 5 weeks later it's not and finding out your car needs another engine when it could of been avoided had the original garage done what I paid them to do which they clearly didnt0 -
The first garage might be liable if they have been negligent, eg they damaged the bearings whilst replacing the belt.
However, the fact that it 'seemed' to be fixed and was ok for another 5 weeks would appear to be something they could not have foreseen and therefore not negligent.0 -
It's easy to say it's the owners responsibly, you get it serviced when you should, get it in the garage when it doesn't sound right, so you expect the fault to be found and fixed, not finding out 5 weeks later it's not and finding out your car needs another engine when it could of been avoided had the original garage done what I paid them to do which they clearly didnt
We don't know if they did exactly what had been paid for, it's just that another problem occurred afterwards which is entirely possible. One reason why I'd never take out Gap insurance is that it's completely worthless in so many real life situations, far better to keep the money to cover such eventualities.
Does the warranty cover any of this?Remember the saying: if it looks too good to be true it almost certainly is.0
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