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Converting 2 flats back to 1 house

My husband and I are considering buying a house which is currently 2 flats and converting it back into one house. Various searches tell us either that planning permission IS required or is NOT required, depending on the source. Our local council charges a vast fee even just to find out whether planning permission is required. There is no change of use as it is already a dwelling house and will still be a dwelling house.

It is being sold as one property with one single mortgage. It is marketed at someone who would want to buy it aqs a landlord and continue to rent the two flats out, but we would like to convert it back to one house. The only major work would be taking out the upstairs kitchen, and removing the partition separating the entrances, and probably replacing the boiler to service the whole property. Everything else would be just internal decoration, and obviously getting the utilities/council tax/deeds etc changed back to one dwelling.

Can someone knowledgeable tell me if planning permission would be required or not. Thank you very much in advance - it's giving me a headache!
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Comments

  • G_M
    G_M Posts: 51,977 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    1 or 2 council tax demands?

    1 or 2 postal addresses?
  • davidmcn
    davidmcn Posts: 23,596 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Was planning permission granted for the conversion into flats? How long ago was the conversion done?
  • Robsia2
    Robsia2 Posts: 14 Forumite
    Thank you for your replies:
    1 or 2 council tax demands? 2 I expect.

    1 or 2 postal addresses? 2 - Flat 1, Street address and Flat 2, Street address

    Was planning permission granted for the conversion into flats? I expect so

    How long ago was the conversion done? I'm afraid I don't know.

    We're just in the considering stage yet, wondering if it's financially feasible.

    I found a link, which says: "20 Things you can do without Planning Permission
    10. Converting Two Homes Into One:
    It may also be worth considering the benefits of converting two houses, such as a pair of semis or two flats, into one property. This can usually be done under PD, and would save you moving out of an area you love. However, if you were considering the option of dividing a property into two dwellings, unfortunately the same rules do not apply and you would need to apply for planning permission."
    (I'm not allowed to post the link)

    And there are several other sources, which say the same thing. But there are also several others which say you DO need permission. So I don't know which to believe.
  • da_rule
    da_rule Posts: 3,618 Forumite
    Sixth Anniversary 1,000 Posts
    I found the same page as you, there are a couple of others that say the same thing and then a lot more that say that you do need planning permission. One person has mentioned they needed a change of use, but they don't expand on why (perhaps converting a ground floor shop and merging it with a first floor flat etc).
    The Planning Portal mentions that you need permission to convert 1 property to 2 but doesn't say anything about the other way around.
    Your local planning officer should be able to answer, what is a relatively simple question.
  • Shelldean
    Shelldean Posts: 2,411 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Our local council planning portal gives details on lots of older planning permission. These often include big house converted into two flats. Goes back to the fifties. These older ones don't have the details the.modern ones have, but will give you a date of the conversion into two, if your council does the same.
  • eddddy
    eddddy Posts: 17,746 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper
    Robsia2 wrote: »
    My husband and I are considering buying a house which is currently 2 flats and converting it back into one house.

    Just an aside... Are you a cash buyer?

    it's very unlikely that you would get a residential mortgage on the property, until it's converted into a single house.
  • da_rule
    da_rule Posts: 3,618 Forumite
    Sixth Anniversary 1,000 Posts
    When you said it's being sold with one single mortgage, do you mean there's only one mortgage on it now or you're planning on buying it with one mortgage?
    Also, have you checked with the Land Registry to see if the two flats have separate (leasehold) titles. There might also be a third title document which will be the freehold title out of which the leasehold titles are granted.
  • G_M
    G_M Posts: 51,977 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    Robsia2 wrote: »


    I found a link, which says:


    ....

    And there are several other sources, which say the same thing. But there are also several others which say you DO need permission. So I don't know which to believe.
    You may not be able to quote the full link, but either tell us the name of the websites or better still paste the full address but add space in the midle (eg after www. xxxxxx) so we can find it.

    Asking a Planning Officer is not so easy these days as it used to be: they tend to want appointments.... & payment! But try emailing the planning office to ask if it would fall within Permitted development.
  • Robsia2
    Robsia2 Posts: 14 Forumite
    edited 29 December 2016 at 9:41PM
    Just an aside... Are you a cash buyer?

    it's very unlikely that you would get a residential mortgage on the property, until it's converted into a single house.

    No we would have to get a mortgage – I’ll ask the mortgage broker once we’ve seen it.
    When you said it's being sold with one single mortgage, do you mean there's only one mortgage on it now or you're planning on buying it with one mortgage?
    It’s being sold as a single property, but we would be getting one mortgage to buy it.
    Also, have you checked with the Land Registry to see if the two flats have separate (leasehold) titles. There might also be a third title document which will be the freehold title out of which the leasehold titles are granted.

    No, but I did see reference in the property history online which states the flats are leasehold, so I assumed the freehold owner would be the property owner.
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