We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.
This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
The Forum now has a brand new text editor, adding a bunch of handy features to use when creating posts. Read more in our how-to guide
post-nuptial agreements
ps2659
Posts: 534 Forumite
A relative of mine wants to gift his daughter a property she is married and he wants to be sure that if she divorces this gift will not form part of the divorce settlement. Maybe there is another way or agreement, grateful for any any help.
0
Comments
-
Is the property being gifted his main home and if so, does he plan to remain living in it?0
-
Not sure if it's similar at all but I was 'given' a house by my trust fund when I was married. When I divorced my husband claimed a stake as he had helped with utility bills and DIY in the house0
-
-
A relative of mine wants to gift his daughter a property she is married and he wants to be sure that if she divorces this gift will not form part of the divorce settlement. Maybe there is another way or agreement, grateful for any any help.
If he wants that, he can't give it to her.0 -
Keep_pedalling wrote: »Is the property being gifted his main home and if so, does he plan to remain living in it?
No the property is a flat which he rents and has owned for many years. Thanks for your reply0 -
No the property is a flat which he rents and has owned for many years. Thanks for your reply
That's good, giving your home away could be disasterous in case of a divorce. Providing a gift to a married child does mean that some of that gift is likely to be spit in case of a divorce, but I would not hold back because of that because that gives the impression you do not trust your child's judgment.
If the plan is to give his daughter a source of income from the rented flat then rather than give her the flat to sell then the alternative solution would be to retain ownership and pass on the income, but that would probable not be the most tax efficient way of doing it.0 -
It is possible to have a post-nuptial agreement. It works in a similar way to a pre-nup, in that it is not legally binding but does form part of the evidence which a Judge would consider, in the event of a divorce.
The couple would each need to take separate legal advice before signing the agreement.
As with a pre-nup, the longer they stay married after the agreement is made, the less weight is likely to be given to it, and it might be overridden if there were changes in circumstances.All posts are my personal opinion, not formal advice Always get proper, professional advice (particularly about anything legal!)0 -
If the plan is to give his daughter a source of income from the rented flat then rather than give her the flat to sell then the alternative solution would be to retain ownership and pass on the income, but that would probable not be the most tax efficient way of doing it.[/QUOTE]
Her dad is prepared to gift her the flat with the income from it to which she has no desire to sell, therefore the income from the flat would be income for her and her husband and children to share however, should they divorce his wishes are for her to retain the flat without it being part of a divorce settlement. The husband has stated he is prepared to sign to this effect, just interested if there is a simple form where all parties sign to agree to this without heavy solicitors costs or even a post nuptial agreement, he is doing this as a way to limit inheritance tax, happy for any help Thanks .0 -
If the plan is to give his daughter a source of income from the rented flat then rather than give her the flat to sell then the alternative solution would be to retain ownership and pass on the income, but that would probable not be the most tax efficient way of doing it.
Her dad is prepared to gift her the flat with the income from it to which she has no desire to sell, therefore the income from the flat would be income for her and her husband and children to share however, should they divorce his wishes are for her to retain the flat without it being part of a divorce settlement. The husband has stated he is prepared to sign to this effect, just interested if there is a simple form where all parties sign to agree to this without heavy solicitors costs or even a post nuptial agreement, he is doing this as a way to limit inheritance tax, happy for any help Thanks .[/QUOTE]
No there is no simple way to do this.
Their ownership of property is joint. Whilst a divorce in1-3 years would likely mean the property is handed to her.
Down the line this is not the case. After many years, he would be, rightly, entitled to a share.0 -
They just agree to it. They write down their intentions now and both sign the document witnessed by a third party.If the plan is to give his daughter a source of income from the rented flat then rather than give her the flat to sell then the alternative solution would be to retain ownership and pass on the income, but that would probable not be the most tax efficient way of doing it.,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,
Her dad is prepared to gift her the flat with the income from it to which she has no desire to sell, therefore the income from the flat would be income for her and her husband and children to share however, should they divorce his wishes are for her to retain the flat without it being part of a divorce settlement. The husband has stated he is prepared to sign to this effect, just interested if there is a simple form where all parties sign to agree to this without heavy solicitors costs or even a post nuptial agreement, he is doing this as a way to limit inheritance tax, happy for any help Thanks .
The court can still override the document if it leaves one party significantly worse off in the case of divorce.
Make sure the person with no interest doesn't do anything to the property. No repairs and doesn't manage the receipt of rent...nothing....nothing at all.
Any income from the property must be set aside and used for maintenance of the property. She cannot use any of the income either of them earn in their normal jobs or from benefits to maintain the property or pay off any loans taken against the property.:footie:
Regular savers earn 6% interest (HSBC, First Direct, M&S)
Loans cost 2.9% per year (Nationwide) = FREE money.
0
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply
Categories
- All Categories
- 354.3K Banking & Borrowing
- 254.4K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 455.4K Spending & Discounts
- 247.3K Work, Benefits & Business
- 604K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 178.4K Life & Family
- 261.5K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.7K Read-Only Boards
