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House ownership split up with girlfriend

Argghhh
Posts: 352 Forumite
Hi could anyone please advise on the pitfalls and the best way to go about this please.
I was with a girl for 18 yrs, she never worked for a 90% of those years and then only part time, she never paid an of the household bills, we were never married or anything. We have 2 children together who are now 16 + 21. I worked 2 jobs to pay ALL the bills, mortgage etc. The 1st house we bought was in joint names when we sold it basically it covered the initial purchase price and the 10k in which we paid out in modernising it so although there looked to be a 10k profit on paper there wasnt really.
We bought a new house using 20k as the deposit that my dad gave me as part of my inheritance. We split up as a couple about 5 years later, she moved out taking the children and i paid maintenance every month (this we arranged between ourselves). The house was bought in my name and here is my issue, i think something was added to it by the solicitor along the lines of after the initial 20k it was split between us. When we seperated 7 yrs ago, i offered my ex girlfriend 10k which i basically took from the mortgage as it was an offset mortgage as a full and final settlement between us which we signed a receipt/agreement basically saying this - i have this still along with the cheque book stubs for the 2 cheques of 5k which were dated 6 months apart, the agreement i wrote was basically - by cashing these 2 cheques you accept it is in full and final settlement and to have no further financial entitlement in the future. I must stress that at no point has there been any animosity between us, she accepts we have moved on. However that doesnt mean i want to donate 50k to her now i am looking at selling and wish to buy another house elsewhere.
Basically my question is, does she still have a right to any money from the sale of the house if somethng has been recorded on the deeds 12 years ago?
I was with a girl for 18 yrs, she never worked for a 90% of those years and then only part time, she never paid an of the household bills, we were never married or anything. We have 2 children together who are now 16 + 21. I worked 2 jobs to pay ALL the bills, mortgage etc. The 1st house we bought was in joint names when we sold it basically it covered the initial purchase price and the 10k in which we paid out in modernising it so although there looked to be a 10k profit on paper there wasnt really.
We bought a new house using 20k as the deposit that my dad gave me as part of my inheritance. We split up as a couple about 5 years later, she moved out taking the children and i paid maintenance every month (this we arranged between ourselves). The house was bought in my name and here is my issue, i think something was added to it by the solicitor along the lines of after the initial 20k it was split between us. When we seperated 7 yrs ago, i offered my ex girlfriend 10k which i basically took from the mortgage as it was an offset mortgage as a full and final settlement between us which we signed a receipt/agreement basically saying this - i have this still along with the cheque book stubs for the 2 cheques of 5k which were dated 6 months apart, the agreement i wrote was basically - by cashing these 2 cheques you accept it is in full and final settlement and to have no further financial entitlement in the future. I must stress that at no point has there been any animosity between us, she accepts we have moved on. However that doesnt mean i want to donate 50k to her now i am looking at selling and wish to buy another house elsewhere.
Basically my question is, does she still have a right to any money from the sale of the house if somethng has been recorded on the deeds 12 years ago?
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Comments
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Hi could anyone please advise on the pitfalls and the best way to go about this please.
I was with a girl for 18 yrs, she never worked for a 90% of those years and then only part time, she never paid an of the household bills, we were never married or anything. We have 2 children together who are now 16 + 21. I worked 2 jobs to pay ALL the bills, mortgage etc. The 1st house we bought was in joint names when we sold it basically it covered the initial purchase price and the 10k in which we paid out in modernising it so although there looked to be a 10k profit on paper there wasnt really.
We bought a new house using 20k as the deposit that my dad gave me as part of my inheritance. We split up as a couple about 5 years later, she moved out taking the children and i paid maintenance every month (this we arranged between ourselves). The house was bought in my name and here is my issue, i think something was added to it by the solicitor along the lines of after the initial 20k it was split between us. When we seperated 7 yrs ago, i offered my ex girlfriend 10k which i basically took from the mortgage as it was an offset mortgage as a full and final settlement between us which we signed a receipt/agreement basically saying this - i have this still along with the cheque book stubs for the 2 cheques of 5k which were dated 6 months apart, the agreement i wrote was basically - by cashing these 2 cheques you accept it is in full and final settlement and to have no further financial entitlement in the future. I must stress that at no point has there been any animosity between us, she accepts we have moved on. However that doesnt mean i want to donate 50k to her now i am looking at selling and wish to buy another house elsewhere.
Basically my question is, does she still have a right to any money from the sale of the house if somethng has been recorded on the deeds 12 years ago?
I'm sure some legal expert will chip in but as you weren't married i doubt she has any claim and especially as she also signed an agreement.0 -
Perhaps a good start would be to download the data held at landreg for the property and see if there are any encumberances registered on file?It will only cost you a few pounds on the landreg website.
Also try and dig out the original agreement.
With regard to your agreement with her when you paid her off..was that an ad hoc agreement drawn up on the kitchen table or was it certified by a solicitor/commissioner of oaths?Feudal Britain needs land reform. 70% of the land is "owned" by 1 % of the population and at least 50% is unregistered (inherited by landed gentry). Thats why your slave box costs so much..0 -
If the house is owned in your name, and your name alone, then that's all there is to it.
Life _might_ get a bit more complex if the CSA (or whoever they are this week) are ever brought in, but since the younger is 16, that's low-risk.0 -
As the house is in your name only and you were not married I would say she has no right to any share.
I don't see how her not working while you were together is a big deal tho I would guess at the time she was bringing up YOUR children??0 -
C_Mababejive wrote: »Perhaps a good start would be to download the data held at landreg for the property and see if there are any encumberances registered on file?It will only cost you a few pounds on the landreg website.
Also try and dig out the original agreement.
With regard to your agreement with her when you paid her off..was that an ad hoc agreement drawn up on the kitchen table or was it certified by a solicitor/commissioner of oaths?
hi yeah it was a typed up agreement i did myself which she signed as receipt of the cheques and to end the financial side of the relationship
and is it the title register i need to download for £3? thanks for the reply0 -
As the house is in your name only and you were not married I would say she has no right to any share.
I don't see how her not working while you were together is a big deal tho I would guess at the time she was bringing up YOUR children??
please dont get personal about caring for my children as i did more than my fair share of that plus most parents both have jobs as well as care for children but she wouldnt get one hence i was doing constant 14 hour daysjust to keep heads above water then coming home cleaning etc0 -
please dont get personal about caring for my children as i did more than my fair share of that plus most parents both have jobs as well as care for children but she wouldnt get one hence i was doing constant 14 hour daysjust to keep heads above water then coming home cleaning etc
They're just presenting the other side of the coin.
Either way, since you are not married I don't believe it comes down to who contributed what in any case. It's about who owns the property. If your GF paid the mortgage on your house while you both lived there, she still wouldn't have a claim for any money when you sold it*, because it's not her house.
*she could sue you for it, but that would depend on there being an agreement that you'd pay her back.0 -
i understand the other side of the coin but i just dont want personal stuff being added. i did ask nicely not to become personal0
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i understand the other side of the coin but i just dont want personal stuff being added. i did ask nicely not to become personal
Then be careful what you post yourself. As easy to misconstrue the written word. Relationships for most people are based on inequality when it comes to share of income.0 -
Is she still named on both the mortgage and title deeds?0
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