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can i move in with dad and not pay fees for mother-in-law

cassy146
Posts: 1 Newbie
my mother is in a nursing home, we pay a top up fee.
my father is living in the family home, but is becoming a danger to himself.
can we sell both properties to buy one together only if he dies do we then have to sell up to pay for mothers fees.
is there anyone out there who knows
my father is living in the family home, but is becoming a danger to himself.
can we sell both properties to buy one together only if he dies do we then have to sell up to pay for mothers fees.
is there anyone out there who knows
0
Comments
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I hope not..It is nice to see the value of your house going up'' Why ?
Unless you are planning to sell up and not live anywhere, I can;t see the advantage.
If you are planning to upsize the new house will cost more.
If you are planning to downsize your new house will cost more than it should
If you are trying to buy your first house its almost impossible.0 -
If you sell the family home, then half of proceeds are your mothers, so my guess would be "no".They deem him their worst enemy who tells them the truth. -- Plato0
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First of all, get your father a referral for an appointment with a social worker and get his needs assessed. Frankly, if he's becoming a danger to himself this needs to be done before you start financial planning.
Going back to your mother, she is in a nursing home? Is her condition stable/predicatable? Does she not trigger for fully-funded continuing healthcare? When was she last assessed?
Presumably, the nursing home charges a top-up because the cost is higher than the LA's "A List" price? Is her current care category correct?
Now, onto the financial issues. Was the family home ignored for the purpose of establishing the liability for care fee payments as your father (presumably over 60/disabled) was living in it? If it was, he may be able to sell it and move on with no problem.
More here;-
http://www.housingcare.org/downloads/kbase/3091.pdf
If he then invests the capital in a property with you, his need for care could then become a problem if it follows close after the sale/purchase. It would be a potential deprivation of assets case, IMHO.
It's worth bearing in mind, if you have a plan to use his money for a deposit on a home for you and you plan to raise a mortgage, you will have all kinds of issues;-
- he will have to be named on mortgage if he wants to be owner (age problem_
- he pays deposit and will live there but not be borrower/owner
- deprivation of assets if "foreseeable" need for care.
You need to sort out the care issues and get proper financial planning advice on the others.I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0 -
Sounds like deprivation of assets!
If you are selling your parent's family home, then half of the value is your mother's, not yours or your father's.
Is this your mother or mother-in-law? Who owns the 2 houses you want to sell and who is currently paying the top-up?0 -
deleted
(spent too long posting by which time kingstreet had said what I wanted to say, and much better too)0
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