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Landlord doesn't have buy to let mortgage?
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MissMoneyP is confusing EXISTING insurance, ie the householder's regular residential policy, requiring them to be resident and not letting, with LL insurance.
A specific LL policy covers letting to tenants, and I would very much doubt there is ever any specific clause requiring consent to let/BTL mortgage being in place.
However, it is true that naive LLs who do not know or choose to advise their EXISTING insurer of their intention to let, would find their cover void if they tried to make a claim.
Its the same as car insurance - your car is covered for you to drive it, but if you lend it to your mate and he wraps it around a tree, you're b****red!0 -
MissMoneypenny wrote: »You seem to be missing the point. Tenants' should be avoiding landlords who don't have consent to let.
You seem to be avoiding the point.
You have suggested that LLs that don't have CTL (but have proper LL insurance) will have invalid insurance.
Please show some evidence and factual information to back up this statement.
Once again. If a LL has LL insurance, then he is covered unless the policy stipulates that he must have CTL, which I have not seen in any policy I have had - I'm not saying that it doesn't exist, just that it isn't automatic like MMP suggests.0 -
You seem to be avoiding the point.
You have suggested that LLs that don't have CTL (but have proper LL insurance) will have invalid insurance.
Please show some evidence and factual information to back up this statement.
Once again. If a LL has LL insurance, then he is covered unless the policy stipulates that he must have CTL, which I have not seen in any policy I have had - I'm not saying that it doesn't exist, just that it isn't automatic like MMP suggests.
I think she will refer to an FAQ on the Endsleigh website who are a broker and I also think the "Insurer" she wrote to ask confirmation was Endsleigh.0 -
You have suggested that LLs that don't have CTL (but have proper LL insurance) will have invalid insurance.
Without CTL being officially granted then the tenants have no right to occupy the property. If the property burns down or damage is caused , due to the tenants negligence. Then the claim can be declined. As the insurance cover is technically void.
The point at issue is occupancy. Not the insurance cover purchased.
Also there is the duty of disclosure by the applicant which applies to all insurance policies.Any non-disclosure, misrepresentation or misdescription of any material fact which would have influenced our decision to provide your insurance could mean that your policy is void in the event of your making a claim.0 -
MissMoneypenny wrote: »When you sell those policies to people: as long as you're happy to put in writing that they are definately covered on a claim with landlords insurance even though they don't have consent let, I'm sure your clients will be happy too.
http://www.directlineforbusiness.co.uk/pdf/landlord-insurance-policy-dlfb56.pdf
I'm not suggesting a landlord should proceed without a formal buy to let mortgage, or at least consent to let. That's a given. If they have the necessary consent and they also have the correct insurance product for the job they are doing, there is no written link in the policy documentation between landlord insurance and consent to let.
I'm not suggesting the ARLA link is wrong. I think it relates to letting a property using owner-occupier buildings insurance and it could clarify that.I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0 -
Thrugelmir wrote: »Without CTL being officially granted then the tenants have no right to occupy the property. If the property burns down or damage is caused , due to the tenants negligence. Then the claim can be declined. As the insurance cover is technically void.
The point at issue is occupancy. Not the insurance cover purchased.
Also there is the duty of disclosure by the applicant which applies to all insurance policies.
Are you aware the Ombudsman would generally rule against an Insurer for voiding or declining if they have not asked a clear question about the subject. There is in effect no requirement to disclose any information to an Insurer unless they specifically ask about it.
Would be interested if you could find an Insurer that asks any type of question / makes a statement about CTL. Would also be interested if you can find an Insurer that has any type of warranty or exclusion about CTL0 -
How do you know the LL has a mortgage on the property?0
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LittleVoice wrote: »How do you know the LL has a mortgage on the property?I am a mortgage broker. You should note that this site doesn't check my status as a Mortgage Adviser, so you need to take my word for it. This signature is here as I follow MSE's Mortgage Adviser Code of Conduct. Any posts on here are for information and discussion purposes only and shouldn't be seen as financial advice. Please do not send PMs asking for one-to-one-advice, or representation.0
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Wow this has turned into an interesting debate
. I also was interested due to a few cases in work where similar has happened. I work for housing benefit and we check land reg to check that ll is who is stated on the form, I have had quite a few where the tenants are in the same position. Obviously wouldn't effect the tenants benefit but interested to know what the implications are of not declaring to mortgage company etc.
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