We'd like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum... Read More »
PLEASE READ BEFORE POSTING: Hello Forumites! In order to help keep the Forum a useful, safe and friendly place for our users, discussions around non-MoneySaving matters are not permitted per the Forum rules. While we understand that mentioning house prices may sometimes be relevant to a user's specific MoneySaving situation, we ask that you please avoid veering into broad, general debates about the market, the economy and politics, as these can unfortunately lead to abusive or hateful behaviour. Threads that are found to have derailed into wider discussions may be removed. Users who repeatedly disregard this may have their Forum account banned. Please also avoid posting personally identifiable information, including links to your own online property listing which may reveal your address. Thank you for your understanding.
Could someone explain how a house purchase allowance works please?

spinnaker
Posts: 7 Forumite
Hi,
I am in the process of buying a new build 2 bedroom flat. I managed to negotiate a 5% deduction on the property which is being classed as an 'allowance'.
Could some explain how an allowance works please? Which one of the following is the way it works?
1. I pay the full price of the flat and then when the funds are transferred only 95% of the funds is actually transferred from the mortgage company to the builder.
2. The 5% reduction is applied to the total purchase price and the contract reflects this same lower purchase price.
3. I pay 100% of the funds and then claim back the 5% from the builder after I have 'completed' and received the keys to the property.
I am just not sure when the 5% reduction gets applied really. Does it always work the same way? I hope the above makes sense. Thanks in advance for your help.
Chaz
I am in the process of buying a new build 2 bedroom flat. I managed to negotiate a 5% deduction on the property which is being classed as an 'allowance'.
Could some explain how an allowance works please? Which one of the following is the way it works?
1. I pay the full price of the flat and then when the funds are transferred only 95% of the funds is actually transferred from the mortgage company to the builder.
2. The 5% reduction is applied to the total purchase price and the contract reflects this same lower purchase price.
3. I pay 100% of the funds and then claim back the 5% from the builder after I have 'completed' and received the keys to the property.
I am just not sure when the 5% reduction gets applied really. Does it always work the same way? I hope the above makes sense. Thanks in advance for your help.

Chaz
0
Comments
-
Hmm, I thought that would be the case too, but it sounds more like option 1 according to my solicitor. I was wondering if there was a standard way that this is done.
* scratches head0 -
The fact that this is an allowance and not vendor deposit, means that the mortgage co believes you are paying the full asking price, as otherwise, they would only lend you the 95% you are paying. I think it is up to your solicitor how they deal with the funds, and option 1 is eminently more sensible than option 3.0
-
Thanks for the help madjock, I think that is probably the case too.0
-
The transfer deed may well quote the full price and you may have to pay SDLT (if applicable) on the full amount but at completion only 95% is sent by your solicitors to the builder or its solicitors.
Your solicitor will have to tell your mortgage lelnder about the allowance so they willhave to be happy about it. If I was a mortgage lender I wouldn't have this - I would take the view that if the builder is making an allowance of 5% then the place is only worth the figure less the allowance. (Most new builds are overpriced!). That would mean I would lend whatever my maximum percentage was of the 95%!
Happily for you a lot of lenders will accept these "allowances", but the point still needs to be checked with them. Not telling the lender is mortgage fraud!
As a conveyancing solicitor I believe the information given in the post to be useful but I accept no liability except to fee-paying clients.RICHARD WEBSTER
As a retired conveyancing solicitor I believe the information given in the post to be useful assuming any properties concerned are in England/Wales but I accept no liability for it.0 -
Thank you Richard, that is exactly the sort of answer I was hoping for. Thanks also to madjock and irnbru too.0
-
Don't see the point anymore in offering advice to people who only want to be agreed with...0 -
Thanks MJMum, I think you are right.0
This discussion has been closed.
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply

Categories
- All Categories
- 349.7K Banking & Borrowing
- 252.6K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 452.9K Spending & Discounts
- 242.7K Work, Benefits & Business
- 619.4K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 176.3K Life & Family
- 255.6K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
- 15.1K Coronavirus Support Boards