Can retailers over label products wih higher prices?

arcon5

halibut2209 wrote: »

That's where I disagree.

As a retailer, you buy something, pay your tax, then sell at the accepted profit margin.

When a tax increase occurs, you've already paid the tax, so you sell at the "accepted profit margin" price. Then when you buy your next load, you buy at the higher price, then sell at the higher price.

The whole point of being a retailer is that YOU pay up front and then get the profit back at a later date. That's what business is.

I think you misunderstand how it works. VAT is added at point of sale.

So if you buy your stock in in Jan at 15% then sell the stock in March where VAT is now 30%, then the retailer pays/charges 30% tax on that sale and not the 15% which tax rate was when stock was bought in

The initial input tax (in this example, paid in Jan_ can be reclaimed so the retailer at this point has not paid tax, its when they sell to the consumer tax is added (assuming they are VAT registered or not on some flat rate scheme).

halibut2209

"Tax" is the wrong word. I'm talking about "Duty"

gordikin

?VAT. Also a smoked fish could be a kipper?

arcon5

halibut2209 wrote: »

"Tax" is the wrong word. I'm talking about "Duty"

Isn't duty the import tax? (and stamp duty on land)

halibut2209

You said VAT is added at point of sale. I believe Duty is an entirely different kettle of fish (thanks to gordi for the pun idea!)

I have never seen a shop/garage charge over a pre-printed cigarette package.

browneyedbazzi

arcon5 wrote: »

Isn't duty the import tax? (and stamp duty on land)

Duty isn't just an import tax, duty is also payable on certain items manufactured and sold on the domestic market - including alcohol and tobacco.

Valli

halibut2209 wrote: »

I'm pretty much up on consumer law, but this whole issue on pre-printed prices is one that I have not seen any proof of either way, and it's come up here several times before.

It's STILL an 'invitation to treat' not an OFFER TO SELL

the contract is formed when the customer says 'I will pay £x' and the retailer ACCEPTS that offer

(says poster WITH a RECOGNISED LAW qualification )

mo786uk

Shops do not have to sell at a marked price - ever. It is their choice.

If the pricing is misleading then they may be commiting criminal offence - but even then that does not mean they have to sell you a product at the shown price.

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Multipacks can be seperated as long as they contain the relevant information - mostly relevant to food products.

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Where a product has a pre-printed price the shop can still offer to sell it at another price but they should make it clearl to the customer before the customers tries to buy.

halibut2209

Valli wrote: »

It's STILL an 'invitation to treat' not an OFFER TO SELL

the contract is formed when the customer says 'I will pay £x' and the retailer ACCEPTS that offer

(says poster WITH a RECOGNISED LAW qualification )

Yes we know that, but this isn't about that.

Valli

halibut2209 wrote: »

Yes we know that, but this isn't about that.

isn't about WHAT?

original question - can shops re-price goods - yes they can

new question - can shops charge a different (higher) price than a manufacturer's RRP printed on packaging - yes they can

and we've also pointed out (me and others) that shops cannot offer a price with the intention to mislead a customer.

customer can choose to pay the ASKED price or walk.

So - isn't about what?