Does change of landlord invalidate a SoD S21?

Fluffs123

Been trawling all over the web trying to find an authoritative answer to this but no luck.

Am a couple months into a 6 month AST with a SoD S21 in place. I've no probs with that as afaik it only becomes an issue if the AST becomes a SPT.

Current LL is selling. Will this invalidate the S21? My thinking is that it's an intent to repossess by the prev LL not the new one so should therefore be invalid.

I'm only enquiring out of curiosity rather than with any devious plan in mind! lol

G_M

Don't see why. Your tenancy remains valid when the landlord changes. All the obligations (repairs, gas safety etc) remain the same with a change of LL. Why should a S21 be any different?

Assuming you are in Eng/Wales, the deposit is protected, and the S21 was issued after the start of the tenancy, then the S21 will be valid. The new owner/landlord inherits all the legal rights and obligations of the old LL.

edit: of course this all assumes you are advised properly of the change of ownership.

Fluffs123

Hmmm so declaration of the intention to repossess by one party remains valid even if it's another party now? Interesting.

Well assuming that's true, am i right in thinking the only way to kill off the SoD is with a new fixed term AST?

Twinmummy_3

The current LL may use the S21 to end the tenancy after the 6 month period so that the buyer can have vacant possesion on purchase as they may not want to be tenants and live there themselves.

G_M

Twinmummy wrote: »

The current LL may use the S21 to end the tenancy after the 6 month period so that the buyer can have vacant possesion on purchase as they may not want to be tenants and live there themselves.

....?????????
No, not just the current LL. The point is the new LL can use the S21 too. The S21, like the tenancy itself, applies between 'tenant' and 'landlord'. the change of LL does not alter that. The S21 is as valid for the existing tenant/new LL as it was for the existing tenant/old LL.

As for " so that the buyer can have vacant possesion on purchase as they may not want to be tenants", what on earth does that mean? The buyer is becoming a landlord, not a tenant!

Plus my reading of the situation is that the change of owner/landlord is hapenning during the (6 month? 12 month?) tenancy, not at its expiry.

Fluffs123

I think Twinmummy was warning me the buyer may want me to move out in order to live here themsleves. Thanks for that. But my understanding is the new owner wants the flat as a buy-to-let.

Yes, the change will probably occur before the end of the current tenancy.