UNDERcharged by dealer

LandyAndy

dzug1 wrote: »

I don't think there's the slightest doubt, legally, that he owes it.

There's a greater argument (because ethics are subjective) that ethically he doesn't.

I'd be interested to hear the ethical argument that he doesn't owe it.

12bdebt3

dzug1 wrote:

I don't think there's the slightest doubt, legally, that he owes it.

I beg to differ.

LandyAndy wrote: »

I'd be interested to hear the ethical argument that he doesn't owe it.

So would I.

redcard

LandyAndy wrote: »

I'd be interested to hear the ethical argument that he doesn't owe it.

I think he means each person has their own ethics - they're not set in stone, like a rulebook.

Ethically, people are able to convince themselves that killing an old granny for £2.36 is the right thing to do.

12bdebt3

redcard wrote: »

Doesn't matter, he signed off the full cost of the work. Whether he paid £6000 or 60p, he still owes whatever the balance is.

It's funny how we're all looking for loopholes to get out of paying our bills, but we're up in arms when the banks / credit card companies etc use the same tactics.

Ethically he still owes the car dealer £1,000. The £7,000 was an invitation to treat. The dealer has a right to withdraw an invitation to treat and the customer has a right to bargain.

If you purchased a house for £180,000 after making an offer and it was originally on the market at £200,000 would you owe the previous home owner £20,000? No.

Strider590

Read your paperwork and make DAMN sure you've not unwittingly signed onto a finance deal for the final £1000.

It's easily done when you've been there 3 hours, your tired, your hungry and you just want to get your car and go home......

sarahg1969

arrontdep wrote: »

Ethically he still owes the car dealer £1,000. The £7,000 was an invitation to treat. The dealer has a right to withdraw an invitation to treat and the customer has a right to bargain.

If you purchased a house for £180,000 after making an offer and it was originally on the market at £200,000 would you owe the previous home owner £20,000? No.

No - it's gone way past the invitation to treat stage. The contract was agreed at £7k, the OP has the car and has only paid £6k. Therefore, he still owes £1k. It's cut and dried.

If you agreed to purchase a house for £180k and exchanged contracts, then only sent £170k to the buyer, you'd still owe £10k (although in the case of a house purchase, the completion wouldn't go through, of course, because it's dealt with differently).

McKneff

Have a look at your invoice, usually at the bottom it should say
E&OE which means errors and ommisions excluded.

redcard

arrontdep wrote: »

Ethically he still owes the car dealer £1,000. The £7,000 was an invitation to treat. The dealer has a right to withdraw an invitation to treat and the customer has a right to bargain.

If you purchased a house for £180,000 after making an offer and it was originally on the market at £200,000 would you owe the previous home owner £20,000? No.

Ridiculous.

See above.

Keith

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unjust_enrichment

Lum

So whatever happened to "Please check your change as mistakes cannot be rectified once you have left the building"?

A similar thing happened to my mum buying an xmas tree from B&Q, they charged her 99p, not £99 and when they phoned her up asking for the money she told them to get stuffed and pointed out the existence of that sign. Last she ever heard from them.