Help re. Spanish Property tax demand for property which isn't mine!!

lizzielondon

op, what have your parents said about this since you received the letter??

missile

MobileSaver wrote: »

I have enough knowledge of the law to know that the OP is not responsible for this debt based on the information given. If your knowledge of Spanish law contradicts this then please do share with everyone.
Things are different in spain. As pointed out by N79.

Asking why a third party did not contact the authorities ten years ago is irrelevant and does not help the OP.
I do not share YOUR opinion. I have suggested what OPs parent's ought to have done. In my opinion her parents could and should contact the mortgage providers and a.n.other creditors asap to sort this problem out.

I can fully understand from your posts that Brits running away from Spanish debts is a bug-bear of yours (and rightly so) but the OP has not done this and it is not for her to justify or explain what someone else did without her knowledge 10 yrs ago.
I never said that, do not try to put words in my mouth.

IMHO, your posts have added no value to this discussion.

puddy

i'd like to know the outcome of this

DVardysShadow

missile wrote: »

MobileSaver wrote: »

I have enough knowledge of the law to know that the OP is not responsible for this debt based on the information given. If your knowledge of Spanish law contradicts this then please do share with everyone.

Things are different in spain. As pointed out by N79.
IMHO, your posts have added no value to this discussion.

The big distinction you are failing to grasp is between

• being responsible for a debt
• being held responsible for a debt

Plainly, OP is not responsible for the debt. However, OP is being held responsible for it, possibly with the backing of the courts.

puddy

that would frighten me. what would make a court make that decision though?

MobileSaver

missile wrote: »

Things are different in spain.

I asked this before but maybe you missed it, can you share a link that highlights these differences so that the OP can look into it further?

missile wrote: »

I never said that, do not try to put words in my mouth.

missile wrote:

It seems they did not do this in spain, why not?

My reading of your question is that you were asking the OP to explain her parents's actions from 10 years ago.

missile wrote: »

IMHO, your posts have added no value to this discussion.

You seem to agree with N79 and their conclusion was "So it would seem wise to understand the nature of this claim and the legal status of the debt as soon as possible." Yesterday I said "The OP needs to ask the Spanish council on what basis they believe she is liable for this debt"...

I'm not sure how you can believe one post adds value and the other doesn't when they're essentially saying the same thing.

DVardysShadow wrote: »

The big distinction you are failing to grasp

I wasn't sure if that was directed at me but as above I'm aware of the distinction hence the original advice to the OP to ask the council on what basis they believe she is liable.

MobileSaver

puddy wrote: »

that would frighten me. what would make a court make that decision though?

Typically a court will ask to see documentary proof that the named person is the actual debtor which is why it would seem odd in this case if the OP is named in a court document.

The most likely explanation is, as N79 suggested, that this is a scattergun approach where possibly the same letter has gone out to several different people; either in the hope that one of them pays up or that they give the current address of the real debtor.

missile

MobileSaver wrote: »

I asked this before but maybe you missed it, can you share a link that highlights these differences so that the OP can look into it further? I have no interest in trying to educate you.

My reading of your question is that you were asking the OP to explain her parents's actions from 10 years ago. That is your opinion

You seem to agree with N79 and their conclusion was "So it would seem wise to understand the nature of this claim and the legal status of the debt as soon as possible." Yesterday I said "The OP needs to ask the Spanish council on what basis they believe she is liable for this debt"... That was your only contribution. Poolboy had already given a better suggestion.

I'm not sure how you can believe one post adds value and the other doesn't when they're essentially saying the same thing. N79 comments added value, yours did not.

I wasn't sure if that was directed at me but as above I'm aware of the distinction hence the original advice to the OP to ask the council on what basis they believe she is liable.

Is this really the best idea you have?

puddy

MobileSaver wrote: »

Typically a court will ask to see documentary proof that the named person is the actual debtor which is why it would seem odd in this case if the OP is named in a court document.

The most likely explanation is, as N79 suggested, that this is a scattergun approach where possibly the same letter has gone out to several different people; either in the hope that one of them pays up or that they give the current address of the real debtor.

but how did they get her details if her parents didnt give her name etc?

GDB2222

My guess, for what it's worth, is that Fierydormouse's father registered the properties in her name, maybe as a gift. Why not ask him if he remembers doing this?