Price Of A Half

derrick

neilmcl wrote: »

Also look at it this way. There's a slightly more intrisic cost to pour 2 halfs than one pint, ie, 2 visits to the pump, 2 glasses to clean etc.

A bit of splitting hairs here I think

Hintza wrote: »

As has been said it costs more to sell a half than a pint.

Can't see how? e.g. a bar person is employed for a 4 hour shift at £6 per hour, total £24. they are not paid on productivity, therefore the cost to the establishment will be the same, whatever amount of work they do!

jdturk

derrick wrote: »

A bit of splitting hairs here I think




Can't see how? e.g. a bar person is employed for a 4 hour shift at £6 per hour, total £24. they are not paid on productivity, therefore the cost to the establishment will be the same, whatever amount of work they do!

Yes but think that if everyone that night bought halves that is alot more glasses and they may not be able to get it done in the same time as if they had been buying pints and thus may have to work extra time.

Its not likely but the cost of pouring a half is ever so slightly more costly

derrick

jdturk wrote: »

Yes but think that if everyone that night bought halves that is alot more glasses and they may not be able to get it done in the same time as if they had been buying pints and thus may have to work extra time.

Its not likely but the cost of pouring a half is ever so slightly more costly

Not if that is all they wanted, same amount of glasses!
You are really working hard now to justify it:D. Bar owner by any chance:beer:

Becles

bryanb wrote: »

Taking the other view, it would follow that a pint served in the same glass as a previous one woud get a discount, less washing up.

They shouldn't be pulling beer into a used glass for risk of contamination.

If there was bacteria in the dirty glass, it could get onto the pump and contaminate every drink pulled after that. Tiny risk I know.

jdturk

derrick wrote: »

Not if that is all they wanted, same amount of glasses!
You are really working hard now to justify it:D. Bar owner by any chance:beer:

That was my first comment but not that hard and no not a bar owner, just thinking logically and mathmatically.

100 people drink 100 pints in 1 pint glasses=100 glasses
100 people drink 100 pints in 1/2 pint glasses=200 glasses, thus more washing up, more time spent washing up, more time spent pouring the bear etc etc etc

davemorton

It gets worse! In my local at happy hour, the cost of a pint is only £2.10, but the cost of a half stays the same at £1.25, but I have found a cunning way to get round this, I just buy two halfs put in the same glass, hence saving myself 40p. I hope the bar staff dont catch me out.

backfoot

Thanks for all the replies so far. Very much inconclusive with opinions either way.

I don't think the analogy with supermarkets bears any comparison because each item is individually priced and labelled. The customer has the information up front on which the purchasing decision is made. Neither do they sell the product from a pump where the price per measure (in this case a pint) is displayed.

The arguments for marginal costing (the half) are also flawed. If I drink 10 pints using ten different glasses do I also pay more per pint to cover additional costs over and above someone drinking one pint? Or conversely,do I get a discount for a bulk purchase (of 10 pints) which has produced a greater gross profit covering overheads?

The question for me is simpler, can they legally advertise/display a price per measure (a pint) and charge a different price for a part measure? With wine, the different sized glasses are shown with corresponding prices. If I had known in advance I would have bought a pint and shared it with my friend.

Yes,its only 5p,its a principle rather than a life changing issue,but then so was short measures in pubs where you can easily get ripped off if you don't know your rights.

derrick

jdturk wrote: »

That was my first comment but not that hard and no not a bar owner, just thinking logically and mathmatically.

100 people drink 100 pints in 1 pint glasses=100 glasses
100 people drink 100 pints in 1/2 pint glasses=200 glasses, thus more washing up, more time spent washing up, more time spent pouring the bear etc etc etc

Still won't cost any more as the bar person is paid hourly not on productivity, re my post in #12.

You are talking hypothetically, it doesn't happen.

Most beer is dispensed through metered pumps, therefore one press for a half, say 10 seconds to fill, two presses for a pint, say 20 seconds, difference in time = nothing to complete a pint. Same with "pulled" beer, try it at your sink, take a one pint container, start filling and stop at half way, it will be half the time as against you filling to the one pint

Might have a point re washing up,(if everyone was drinking halves, unlikely), but these will be washed in a glasswasher, so a bit irrelevant.

Hintza

Well all they really need to do is ensure they have the price of a half pint on their table of tarrifs. That sounds the only thing that is wrong.

You could always complain but will probably be barred in the process.

backfoot

neilmcl wrote: »

My point was a cost of a pint doesn't equate to the cost of 2 halves which is what has been queried.

With respect,that wasn't my query at all. I was asking if it was legal to advertise/display a price per measure and then charge a different price for a part measure?

It's a bit amusing to think that the landlord might say 'you do realise that I will be charging you more for drinking halves tonight to cover the additional costs of washing and drying these smaller glasses.':rotfl:

The pub in question didn't actually suggest that as the reason. I was given a garbled answer regarding 'tax' from an independant supplier.:think: