We’d like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum.

This is to keep it a safe and useful space for MoneySaving discussions. Threads that are – or become – political in nature may be removed in line with the Forum’s rules. Thank you for your understanding.

📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!

Shorting in an ISA fund - explanation please

I've been looking around for a home of this year's ISA equity allowance and came across funds which "short", which I don't properly understand. I came across this explanation on the Hargreaves Lansdown website:

Shorting – an explanation
Traditionally investors buy assets they believe will rise in value. Shorting is different.

The principle is that the fund manager actually sells shares they don’t own. This in effect means he owes the buyer the shares. The buyer agrees they will not take delivery of the shares for, say, six months and the fund manager hopes that by then the share price will have fallen. After six months the fund manager purchases the shares in the market and passes them on to his buyer. The difference between the two prices is the profit or loss. For example:

1. Fund manager sells short 10,000 shares at £2 each = £20,000
2. Purchase these shares six months later at 80p each = £8,000
3. Profit = £12,000

In this example had the share price risen by the same amount, it would have cost the manager more to purchase the shares than they made from selling them and they would have made a £12,000 loss. There are many ways of effecting this investment strategy and managers may short by entering into contracts with a broker and not actually take delivery of the shares.

My question is: If the fund makes a £12,000 proft, who actually makes the loss and how do I know that this loss isn't being born by another fund in which I might have invested?"

Comments

  • Shorting is where you 'borrow' shares from someone, sell them, hope they go down, then buy them back at the lower price, and return them to their original owner. 'Naked shorting' is where you don't go to the bother of borrowing the shares to begin with, (which is why it's not generally allowed.)
    My question is: If the fund makes a £12,000 proft, who actually makes the loss
    The person you borrowed from/return the shares to, though it's technically a paper loss unless they sell them at that price.
    and how do I know that this loss isn't being born by another fund in which I might have invested?"
    Depends on if your other fund allows it's shares to be borrowed.
    Conjugating the verb 'to be":
    -o I am humble -o You are attention seeking -o She is Nadine Dorries
  • turbobob
    turbobob Posts: 1,500 Forumite
    Primrose wrote: »
    My question is: If the fund makes a £12,000 proft, who actually makes the loss and how do I know that this loss isn't being born by another fund in which I might have invested?"

    Since short sellers benefit from a fall in a share price, anyone who is long (owns) the share that went down in value would take the loss. On a practical level it might be difficult to find out the second part of your question because AFAIK funds don't have to declare short positions (except where required under regulations, like on some financial companies).
This discussion has been closed.
★ ★ ★ Meet your Ambassadors

🚀 Getting Started

Hi new member!

Our Getting Started Guide will help you get the most out of the Forum

Categories

  • All Categories
  • 355.8K Banking & Borrowing
  • 254.9K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
  • 456.2K Spending & Discounts
  • 248.3K Work, Benefits & Business
  • 605.9K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
  • 179K Life & Family
  • 263.8K Travel & Transport
  • 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
  • 16.2K Discuss & Feedback
  • 37.7K Read-Only Boards

Is this how you want to be seen?

We see you are using a default avatar. It takes only a few seconds to pick a picture.