Do I have to wait 39 weeks for mortgage help?

mumofjusttwo

TBH i don't know how he is going to pay his half. He is staying at his mum at the moment. I am guessing he can't claim so I am now wondering if we will have to sell

when i asked they gave me the impressions that they paid the internet on the mortgage they made no mention of it just being my part

mitchaa

mumofjusttwo wrote: »

TBH i don't know how he is going to pay his half. He is staying at his mum at the moment. I am guessing he can't claim so I am now wondering if we will have to sell

when i asked they gave me the impressions that they paid the internet on the mortgage they made no mention of it just being my part

Yep unfortunately for you.

It is possible that he can sign the house off to you so it is solely in your name but it is highly doubtful your lender would allow you to do so.

Im not quite sure how the rules stand with him being unemployed though, because he may be able to get his half share paid too if he were to claim JSA and apply for ISMI also

Worth asking. (Well he would have too)

mumofjusttwo

thanks for your help.

I wish that thy gave you the correct information when you went there, rather than finding out later etc

deb0020

mumofjusttwo wrote: »

thanks

Is rthe 39 week rule only regarding sole income. My DH used to live here bu moved out in February. Would his income for the last year be taken into consideration re the 39 week rule?

If you are a single person claiming for help with a mortgage that is in joint names then the DWP will ask if the joint mortgagee is paying anything towards the mortgage. If he is not, they should then allow the full cost of the allowable amount of the mortgage to you. If your ex is on JSA at another address he will not be able to claim towards help with the mortgage as he is not living in the mortgaged property.
I hope this helps

real1314

mitchaa wrote: »

Is the house solely in your name?

If not, and it is in joint, then you will only get 50% of the interest applicable, so for example, if your mortgage is £1000pm, £800 payable in interest, £200 in repayment, you would only receive £400pm to help towards the mortgage.

You would still have to find the £600 yourself if your ex was refusing to pay his share.

I don't think this is correct. Can you provide a link to the regs that state this is correct?
I suspect you've just made this up based on perhaps other posts rather than any direct knowledge of the rules involved.

OP - take your advice from the jobcentre / dwp - people on here sometimes give advice without knowing what they are talking about.

mitchaa

real1314 wrote: »

I don't think this is correct. Can you provide a link to the regs that state this is correct?
I suspect you've just made this up based on perhaps other posts rather than any direct knowledge of the rules involved.

OP - take your advice from the jobcentre / dwp - people on here sometimes give advice without knowing what they are talking about.

Are you suggesting ISMI pays for the 2nd persons share also?

So in essence, the husband leaves his wife, both are joint on the mortgage deeds, the state pays the whole mortgage (well repayment part) for X amount of time. The house is sold X amount of years later and the husband because he is still on the title deeds is legally entitled to receive half the gained equity even though he has not contributed.

Can you not see how much the above is open to abuse, especially by couples pretending to split up just to pay their mortgage.

You show me documented proof that your theory exists, as i am 99.9% sure from reading previous posts on this matter from people that are in this exact same situation that the 50/50 thing rings true. Im not about to search the internet to prove a point to you, im only passing on info that has been covered a million times before here on MSE.

If my info is wrong, then i apologise but i would like to know either way.

deb0020

mitchaa wrote: »

Are you suggesting ISMI pays for the 2nd persons share also?

So in essence, the husband leaves his wife, both are joint on the mortgage deeds, the state pays the whole mortgage (well repayment part) for X amount of time. The house is sold X amount of years later and the husband because he is still on the title deeds is legally entitled to receive half the gained equity even though he has not contributed.

Can you not see how much the above is open to abuse, especially by couples pretending to split up just to pay their mortgage.

QUOTE]


Yes that is right and yes it is open to abuse.
However the way the DWP look at it is, who is living in the property and are they liable to pay the mortgage?
If the mortgage is in joint names and one person is not paying then the person in the home is liable for the whole cost.
IS,JSA(IB) or ESA (IR) would then pay the full amount payable.

I am not saying if I agree or disagree but this is the system

mumofjusttwo

sorry for the delay but went away for a couple of days.

thanks so much for your help.