Flat in Scotland - now living in Kent - Council Tax?

foggys916

Hi,

My wife's mother (Jo) has decided to move closer to us in Kent. She is renting a house from my sister, who has moved in with her partner. Jo has a job locally.

Now Jo had a flat in Edinburgh, which she vacated on the 29th of October. The next week the flat went on the market, for renting, via a local agent, but to date, even though it has had six viewings still no prospective tenant.

Now a council tax ("CT") bill has arrived for the final instalment from end of November to 1st April 2009 for this flat in Edinburgh. Now a 'helpful' person at Edinburgh council said she must pay last amount as there was no tenant. Two lots of council tax (i.e. Kent and Scotland??).

Had a look on http://www.landlordzone.co.uk/tax/council-tax.htm and it said additional exemptions from CT applied in Scotland, one of which was (and I quote from site) "Property left unoccupied because it is difficult to let separately", now what does that mean? ("separately")?

Can she show the council the website where the flat is advertised and the evidence of viewings, and does that then mean she is "exempt"? Obviously she will have to pay CT in Kent, but two lots?!?!

Help/Advise would be great..

Steve

debtfreein4years

Hi

She will have to pay Im afriad, the bit about it being expemt from council tax usually refers to a granny flat type thing.

she can call the council up and see if she can get a discount on it, i think if its a second home its a 10% discount that she would get.

gxx

foggys916

Thanks for that, understand it now.

Incredibly unjust mind you, paying for services you won't use.

I think I'll tell her to pay the reminder per month, in case the flat gets let.

Mandog

I don't feel it's unfair that people pay Council Tax wherever they live or own property - it wouldn't be fair for a BTL landlord to get an exemption if their investment property sat empty for a time, or for people with a holiday home not to contribute to the local council.

A lot of CT goes on keeping an area orderly and in good nick so just by owning a property you are using services.

Your mother-in-law's situation is unfortunate as she moved for family reasons, but I don't see how the system could distinguish between genuine need and lifestyle decisions.

concisethinker

Hi.
As far as I am aware your mother-in-law should be exempt for CT at her Edinburgh flat if ,(obviously) it is presently unoccupied & unfurnished she is entitled 6 mths total relief then 50% reduction thereafter. If the flat is furnished she would be entitled to a 50% reduction for first 6 mths. Ask your council for exemption form, evidence has to be provided to council to support claim.

foggys916

Mandog wrote: »

I don't feel it's unfair that people pay Council Tax wherever they live or own property - it wouldn't be fair for a BTL landlord to get an exemption if their investment property sat empty for a time, or for people with a holiday home not to contribute to the local council.

A lot of CT goes on keeping an area orderly and in good nick so just by owning a property you are using services.

Your mother-in-law's situation is unfortunate as she moved for family reasons, but I don't see how the system could distinguish between genuine need and lifestyle decisions.

Actually your reply identifies why it is unfair. I agree professional landlords, or those who can afford long long holidays shouldn't be exempt. But my mother-in-law is likely to be put into financial difficultly if this continues much longer. Using services? A theoretical argument to justify the policy.

As I said, unfair, not unfortunate. The system should distinguish.

alibongo42

Concisethinker is absolutely correct. I have been through this process more than once, and although not ideal, it is possible to do this retrospectively.

An inspection visit will probably be required, and if you're looking for the six months total exemption there must be absolutely no furniture present at all. Not even a single chair.