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Service charges for flats

Dear friends,
I wanted some advice regarding service charges for leasehold flats.

I sold my flat 1 year ago and had paid all the service charges to that date. Now the present owner has recieved a letter from the leaseholder asking them to pay some money during the period I stayed in the flat (which obviously they are unhappy to pay and have passed it to me). This extra sum was following a recalculation of the actual expenses after I had sold the flat. My question is
1. Am I legally bound to pay this money?
2. Should the new owner pay it?

I would be grateful for your opinion.
many thanks

Comments

  • david29dpo
    david29dpo Posts: 3,986 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 1,000 Posts Name Dropper Combo Breaker
    1. No.
    2. Maybe, if its miscalculation on the company part, let them sort it out.
  • DrFluffy
    DrFluffy Posts: 2,549 Forumite
    What does the small print on your contract for the then service charge say?
    April Grocery Challenge £81/£120
  • Doozergirl
    Doozergirl Posts: 34,082 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    I think it's their problem now :o

    I've certainly had to pay previous service charge because it simply hadn't been billed by the time we bought.

    I'd see if they pursue it further, but ask your solicitor just to rebuff it for the meantime.
    Everything that is supposed to be in heaven is already here on earth.
  • chappers
    chappers Posts: 2,988 Forumite
    Would have thought you would be liable if you left before the management company had fully made the books up for that year, then the figure they gave you should have been provisional.
  • You are liable for service charges for any period when you owned the property. A good solicitor should withhold a sum from the completion money payable to you.....say £100. When the final account are published any overdue accounts are paid from this sum and the remainder returned to you.

    YOU need to pay.
  • I checked the small print, no mention of bill being provisional. Just before the sale actually my solicitor got a final bill from the leaseholder, so it was uptodate on the day of sale. I think i have nothing to do with the flat now.
  • speedtwin
    speedtwin Posts: 262 Forumite
    I know this is compleaty different but if you had a car and had some work done at the garage and then sold it you would still be responsable for the bill even though you didnt own the car any more.

    How this comment helps you I have no idea at all.
    O
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