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Paying a bill on 0% Card.
Am due to pay a large holiday balance fairly soon, does paying (Part of) a bill like this count as a “spend” on a 0% spend card and therefore allow me the interest free period ?
many thanks.
Comments
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Yes.
Let's Be Careful Out There1 -
Yes - as long as you still get 0% on purchases. It's not very common, but some 0% cards only offer the promotional rate on purchases made in the first 90 days or similar. So just check that any purchase made now would still qualify.
Hopefully it goes without saying, but you must make sure you'll be able to clear the entire balance when the 0% promotional rate expires.
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And also hopefully goes without saying that you have set up a DD on the card to pay at least the minimum each month to ensure you unintentionally don't lose your 0% promotional rate.
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thanks.
The holiday was booked (and deposit paid) well over a a year ago but the balance is due in a month or so.
So the actual payment will be made well within any interest free period but I was/am wondering if the balance payment would still be treated as a purchase.
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Do you mean you're looking to take out a new 0% purchase card? If so then yes, paying for a holiday is just a standard purchase like any other. Of course, you'd need to have a sufficient credit available to you in order to use it to pay the balance.
My initial reply was based on the assumption that you already had a 0% purchase card.
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