Selling a leasehold property

doristuck4

So I brought my flat from the council and now I'm able to sell, hoping to complete 1st may.

I'm in a masionette with 8 other residents.

Back in Oct '25 my neighbour contacted the council as the fasica above her bedroom window had fell off as it was rotten. Pigeons started arriving and laid eggs etc etc.

They didn't get anyone to look at it till Feb '26, we were then given a date 23rd Mar '26, to get it fixed.

We currently have scaffolding up and they are just waiting after 1 week of completing the work for pest control to check no more pigeons are in there before just putting last bit on, but the pigeons can't get in there.

So as i may have 4 weeks left living here, what happens to the billing of the work, we have just recieved our 24-25 bill, now my question is are we to pay it before completion or is it going to be the new owner, there solicitor know about it all we haven't withheld the information . But no invoice has been issued yet as bills have already been given, i have contacted leasehold department and asked if I have any outstanding bills they have said no, but I'm worried that before completion we are going to be hit with a big bill, does anyone know anything about it thanks

eddddy

doristuck4 said

we have just recieved our 24-25 bill, now my question is are we to pay it before completion or is it going to be the new owner

Do you mean your 24-25 bill or your 26-27 bill - i.e. the bill covering 1st April 2026 to 31st March 2027?

Either way, it depends what date of the bill is. (Not the period that the bill covers.)

• If the date is before completion of the sale, you have to pay the council, if the date is after completion of the sale, your buyer has to pay the council.

• But then the solicitors will make an adjustment on completion.

So for example, it would work like this:

• Let's say the council have sent you a service charge bill covering 1st April 2026 to 31st March 2027 (365 days)
• It is due to be paid on 1st April 2026
• So you have to pay it on 1st April 2026
• Then let's say you complete on 1st May 2026
• So you should pay for 30 days of the service charge, and the buyer should pay for 335 days of the service charge
• so the buyer will pay you 335 days worth of service charge on completion, to compensate you for what you have already paid the council

doristuck4 said

but I'm worried that before completion we are going to be hit with a big bill, does anyone know anything about it thanks

I assume you mean for the facia repairs, scaffolding, etc.

First of all, you need to agree with the buyer who is going to pay for this work - you or the buyer.

Then…

• Again, if the bill is dated before completion, you have to pay the council. If the bill is dated after completion the buyer has to pay it.

• And again, if that means that an adjustment payment is required, the solicitors will do that on completion

So it's important that you keep your solicitor informed about what bills you receive and what bills you pay - so that your solicitor can make the correct adjustments.

fullyrendered

Have you had any Section 20 consultation ahead of this work? If not that suggests the total cost is under the £250 per flat trigger for consultation, or if it is over then the contribution should be limited to £250.

Any costs not yet added to your service charge account but known about should be disclosed, an agreement as to who will pay entered into, and if it is you, a retention will most likely be held - the costs will be demanded from the new leaseholder, but paid out from the retention.

Assuming the council is still the freeholder, the costs are usually added to the service charge accounts as follows:

Work done/invoiced to the council by 31st March 2026 - added to the service charge (reconciliation) in summer 2026.

Work done/invoiced 1st April 2026 - 31st March 2027 - added to the same in summer 2027.

This is dependent on your accounting year, what the lease allows, and any mechanism they have for raising demands at other times.

doristuck4

HI

I dont know what a section 20 is.

All ive had is a email saying when work is being done, they haven't finished the job yet.

I called and they said my account was clear.

I'm guessing that i will do a retention as no invoice has been given, but how long do they get to provide a invoice ?

eddddy

doristuck4 said

 …no invoice has been given, but how long do they get to provide a invoice ?

They either have to provide an invoice within 18 months, or inform you in writing within 18 months that you will receive an invoice later, .

If they inform you in writing within 18 months that you'll be getting an invoice - then there isn't really a time limit for sending the invoice.

paulintheprocess

This happens with leaseholds.

Usually, if the work relates to your time owning the property, you’ll be the one who pays, even if the bill comes after completion.

Your solicitor should handle this though. They may agree who pays or hold some money back if a bill is expected.

You’ve done the right thing declaring it. Just flag it to your solicitor so there are no surprises

doristuck4

https://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/discussion/comment/81946928#Comment_81946928

Thanks, so something like a retention

II Have emailed leasehold department and asked who will be responsible and how much it would be, but they aren't very fast in replying, times ticking and I just want to get it all sorted.

Thanks