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2 default notices for same debt?

Ob1Toby
Ob1Toby Posts: 11 Forumite
First Post
edited 27 September at 9:47AM in Credit cards
Hi all

I have a small forgotten credit card debt from years ago, which ive just been contacted about by a dca.

I issued a sar to the lender and dca

The results were that the credit card company issued 2 default notices ( which are not on my credit file) 1 in early 2019 and the other in late 2024

The last payment on the account was in early 2018

My questions are:-

Can a creditor issue 2 default notices? Surely, once its defaulted, its defaulted.

Is this account statute barred? Both the last payment and the expirey of the 1st default were both more than 6yrs ago

Does the fact that the default notice/s are not registered on my credit file have any bearing/effect on this?


Thanks for any replies in advance

Comments

  • fatbelly
    fatbelly Posts: 23,359 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Cashback Cashier
    Yes

    Yes it's statute barred

    Yes - it is correct that nothing appears on your credit file.

    You can send them a statute barred letter, which also reminds them of their requirements under CONC 7. I thinl there is a template in the stickies on debt free wannabe
  • Nasqueron
    Nasqueron Posts: 11,085 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Photogenic Name Dropper
    edited 1 October at 9:05AM
    Ob1Toby said:
    Hi all

    I have a small forgotten credit card debt from years ago, which ive just been contacted about by a dca.

    I issued a sar to the lender and dca

    The results were that the credit card company issued 2 default notices ( which are not on my credit file) 1 in early 2019 and the other in late 2024

    The last payment on the account was in early 2018

    My questions are:-

    Can a creditor issue 2 default notices? Surely, once its defaulted, its defaulted.

    Is this account statute barred? Both the last payment and the expirey of the 1st default were both more than 6yrs ago

    Does the fact that the default notice/s are not registered on my credit file have any bearing/effect on this?


    Thanks for any replies in advance
    The process normally is that the bank defaults on date x, then sells the debt and marks the account as closed/settled and the debt collectors register a default which must be the original default date, but in their name.

    A debt defaulted and last paid in 2018 would not only be statute barred but cannot be reported as live with a new date i.e. resetting the clock and you can complain if they have done that and it appeared again as live

    Sam Vimes' Boots Theory of Socioeconomic Unfairness: 

    People are rich because they spend less money. A poor man buys $10 boots that last a season or two before he's walking in wet shoes and has to buy another pair. A rich man buys $50 boots that are made better and give him 10 years of dry feet. The poor man has spent $100 over those 10 years and still has wet feet.

  • Ob1Toby
    Ob1Toby Posts: 11 Forumite
    First Post
    Thank you for your reply

    I found out today that the account hasn't been sold, but has been passed for collection. The dca has said that the credit card company "demanded" payment in late 2023, and because of that, it is not statute barred.

    Ive never heard of "demanded" before. Does anyone know what this is and implications please?


    Many thanks
  • Nasqueron
    Nasqueron Posts: 11,085 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Photogenic Name Dropper
    Ob1Toby said:
    Thank you for your reply

    I found out today that the account hasn't been sold, but has been passed for collection. The dca has said that the credit card company "demanded" payment in late 2023, and because of that, it is not statute barred.

    Ive never heard of "demanded" before. Does anyone know what this is and implications please?


    Many thanks
    The DCA is lying, the clock is only reset if YOU acknowledge the debt, either by paying or confirming it e.g. in writing. Send them the statute barred letter (there is one on the forum or sites like Debt Camel)

    Sam Vimes' Boots Theory of Socioeconomic Unfairness: 

    People are rich because they spend less money. A poor man buys $10 boots that last a season or two before he's walking in wet shoes and has to buy another pair. A rich man buys $50 boots that are made better and give him 10 years of dry feet. The poor man has spent $100 over those 10 years and still has wet feet.

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