Capital allowances balancing charge

TheGreenFrog

If you claim capital allowances, but have a private use element (taken into account when the capital allowances were claimed), what happens when you sell an item?  For example if you have an asset which cost £100 and claim £100 capital allowances less £20 private use - your pool shows £0.  But then you sell the asset for £50 - is the balancing charge £50 or do you reduce it to take account of personal use (i.e. balancing charge of £40)?  Have tried to find the answer without success.

Nomunnofun1

£50 less personal use. £40 is your answer - same principle applies!

TheGreenFrog

Thanks @Nomunnofun1.