Joint ownership of a house

Billybob55

Hello All
I am looking to be pointed towards some advice on a issue a friend has (honest it is for a friend) I have tried the net, but no real advice.
If 3 friends own a house and are on the mortgage, they all pay the mortgage, the friendship breaks down, 1 moves out, the other 2 stay in house and carry on paying the mortgage. 
We are now 10 years down the road. If the 2 now want to sell the house, will the 1 who has not paid anything towards the house or mortgage still be entitled to there 33% of any profit. I am unclear at the moment if there is declaration of trust in place.(trying to find out), but let says there isn't.

Bookworm105

find out the facts rather than indulge in speculation.
is it Tenants in Common (unlikely not to have DoT) or is Joint Tenants (impossible to have a DoT)?

Billybob55

Thanks bookworm105, I wasn't indulging in anything. It was to preempt that question being asked, that I currently don't have the answer to.
It's held as tenants in common. 

Bookworm105

Billybob55 said:

It's held as tenants in common. 

In the absence of a DoT, the answer is easily found online: TiC defaults to equal (legal & beneficial) shares of the total property.
Random google result:
https://osborneslaw.com/blog/declaration-of-trust/#:~:text=For%20tenants%20in%20common%2C%20the,purchase%20price%20than%20the%20other.

Unpaid mortgage is a matter outside of the legal and beneficial ownership, and would need to be negotiated between the 3 of them (or worst case end up in court).