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SDLT - avoid 3% surcharge?

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Comments

  • EssexHebridean
    EssexHebridean Posts: 25,601 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 10,000 Posts Name Dropper Photogenic
    This reads like an HMRC Guidance note "example case"! 
    🎉 MORTGAGE FREE (First time!) 30/09/2016 🎉 And now we go again…New mortgage taken 01/09/23 🏡
    Balance as at 01/09/23 = £115,000.00 Balance as at 31/12/23 = £112,000.00
    Balance as at 31/08/24 = £105,400.00 Balance as at 31/12/24 = £102,500.00
    £100k barrier broken 1/4/25
    Balance as at 31/08/25 = £ 95,450.00. Balance as at 31/12/25 = £ 91,100.00
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  • KiwiCoop
    KiwiCoop Posts: 116 Forumite
    Part of the Furniture 100 Posts
    A friend of mine bought a house with his new wife and just didn't bother mentioning to the solicitor that he already owned one.  If you're surprised to learn that, 7-8 years later, HMRC haven't been in touch you're giving them too much credit.
  • user1977
    user1977 Posts: 19,163 Forumite
    10,000 Posts Seventh Anniversary Photogenic Name Dropper
    KiwiCoop said:
    A friend of mine bought a house with his new wife and just didn't bother mentioning to the solicitor that he already owned one.  If you're surprised to learn that, 7-8 years later, HMRC haven't been in touch you're giving them too much credit.
    "People often get away with tax evasion" isn't the sort of "money-saving" advice encouraged around these parts...
  • Some advice please on my particular scenario would be much appreciated.

    My partner (no legal connection) has sourced a good property flip (ie. buy, refurb, sell).
    I own a property, she doesn't.
    If we bought together we would obviously be paying the higher SDLT rate.
    I'm willing to give her the money to buy it outright.
    Cash buy, no lending required.
    I have a Deed of Trust saying that I have lent £x and she owes me £x back.
    Her deal, I'm the funder.

    I'm hopefully assuming (maybe incorrectly) that this would be a very different scenario to the original poster's situation and wouldn't be breaking any HMRC rules?

  • SDLT_Geek
    SDLT_Geek Posts: 3,033 Forumite
    Eighth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    steven239 said:
    Some advice please on my particular scenario would be much appreciated.

    My partner (no legal connection) has sourced a good property flip (ie. buy, refurb, sell).
    I own a property, she doesn't.
    If we bought together we would obviously be paying the higher SDLT rate.
    I'm willing to give her the money to buy it outright.
    Cash buy, no lending required.
    I have a Deed of Trust saying that I have lent £x and she owes me £x back.
    Her deal, I'm the funder.

    I'm hopefully assuming (maybe incorrectly) that this would be a very different scenario to the original poster's situation and wouldn't be breaking any HMRC rules?

    It is indeed a different scenario from OP's if you are simply lending the buyer some money and will have no share in the property yourself.

    Your partner would lose her status as a first time buyer for SDLT (if she has not owned a property before).  She would not be entitled to claim first time buyers' relief on this property as the intention is to sell it, not for her to live in it as her only or main residence.

    The loan document should not be called a "deed of trust".  That terminology suggests you have a share in the property rather than a loan.  You might want a legal charge back.  There being no legal connection you would need to check if there are consumer credit / money lending formalities to deal with.
  • Thank you SDLT Geek. Is a legal chargeback the same as taking a Charge like a traditional lender would have a First or Second Charge on a property, or is this different?

    Also now taking the same example but instead of just lending the money and receiving the money back (with or without interest), instead I receive the money back with a share of the profits, would this then trigger an 'interest' and higher SDLT?

  • SDLT_Geek
    SDLT_Geek Posts: 3,033 Forumite
    Eighth Anniversary 1,000 Posts Name Dropper
    steven239 said:
    Thank you SDLT Geek. Is a legal chargeback the same as taking a Charge like a traditional lender would have a First or Second Charge on a property, or is this different?

    Also now taking the same example but instead of just lending the money and receiving the money back (with or without interest), instead I receive the money back with a share of the profits, would this then trigger an 'interest' and higher SDLT?

    Yes, a legal charge is the same kind of security as a traditional lender would take.

    There is a danger of you being treated as a joint buyer for SDLT purposes if you share the profit (for example you might be treated as a partner).

    This is one for specialist accountancy advice.
  • KiwiCoop said:
    A friend of mine bought a house with his new wife and just didn't bother mentioning to the solicitor that he already owned one.  If you're surprised to learn that, 7-8 years later, HMRC haven't been in touch you're giving them too much credit.
    I like that. I wonder if at any point your friend was asked ?
  • KiwiCoop said:
    A friend of mine bought a house with his new wife and just didn't bother mentioning to the solicitor that he already owned one.  If you're surprised to learn that, 7-8 years later, HMRC haven't been in touch you're giving them too much credit.
    He got a new wife but failed to mention that he already had one?  That’s bigamy 🤣
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