No title deeds registered

Onemorebeer

My late father built a house and didn't register or obtain title deeds for the property, the property passed to my mother. We have all the plans, planning permission docs, land owner agreement to build on the land letter etc. the property is a detached house built in 1990 does anyone know how I can obtain new title deeds for the house?

user1977

He owned the land? That's all that's needed, you don't need to update the deeds just because you build a house on the land.

Or does "land owner agreement to build on the land" mean a third party owns the land (and still does)? In that case you may need to buy it...

Hoenir

Registering land or property with HM Land Registry

https://www.gov.uk/registering-land-or-property-with-land-registry

daveyjp

The parcel of land will need first registration as it wasn't until 1990 that ownership had to be regsitered at the Land Registry.  If you have the original deeds it will make it easier.

propertyrental

daveyjp said:

The parcel of land will need first registration as it wasn't until 1990 that ownership had to be regsitered at the Land Registry.  If you have the original deeds it will make it easier.

Not so.

Compulsory land registration was extended piecemeal across the country in a series of Registration of Title Orders.

For the relevant dates for compulsory 1st registration, see S8.1,  8.2 and 8.3 (Wales) here

https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/first-registrations/practice-guide-1-first-registrations#when-land-became-subject-to-compulsory-registration

Onemorebeer

Thanks for your comments, it's leasehold, the land is registered and I have a letter from the land owner giving there consent for my father to build a house on the land. The house was built but it appears no deeds were ever applied for.

user1977

Onemorebeer said:

Thanks for your comments, it's leasehold, the land is registered and I have a letter from the land owner giving there consent for my father to build a house on the land. The house was built but it appears no deeds were ever applied for.

Still not clear what sort of "deeds" you think needed to be "applied for"? Title to land includes whatever happens to be built on the land. If your dad was the leaseholder of the land, then that now includes the house. So it should just be a question of transferring the leasehold interest to whoever has inherited it.

Onemorebeer

Dad didn't own the land, originally he inherited an old workshop on the land, he paid ground rent annually to the land owners, there doesn't appear to be any deeds or registration for the very old building he demolished and no deeds for the house that he had built on the land. The land itself appears on land registry records but the property built on the land does not. 

user1977

Onemorebeer said:

Dad didn't own the land, originally he inherited an old workshop on the land, he paid ground rent annually to the land owners, there doesn't appear to be any deeds or registration for the very old building he demolished and no deeds for the house that he had built on the land. The land itself appears on land registry records but the property built on the land does not. 

But he owned the leasehold interest to the land, so that leasehold title now includes whatever is built on it. The land registry plans are based on the Ordnance Survey maps so in the background they show whatever the OS has (or hasn't) got around to surveying, but that doesn't have any legal significance.

Or do you mean there is (or was) an intention to buy the freehold to the land?

Onemorebeer

We don't intend buying the land, but if we sell the house the new owner will require title deeds which we don't have.

user1977

Onemorebeer said:

We don't intend buying the land, but if we sell the house the new owner will require title deeds which we don't have.

You have the leasehold title for the land. That's what the new owner will want. You'll need to explain better what you think the problem is.