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Default Notice for Zero
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Damo66a
Posts: 15 Forumite
Hi there,
I found out yesterday that a default notice was issued against me for a 0 balance from my bank. Ive never had a credit facility with them, never been over drawn but theyve entered a default notice against me. I've disputed it with transunion and raised a complaint with the bank. Im just curious as to how they are even able to do this? A zero balance?? How can they give me a default notice for nothing??
I found out yesterday that a default notice was issued against me for a 0 balance from my bank. Ive never had a credit facility with them, never been over drawn but theyve entered a default notice against me. I've disputed it with transunion and raised a complaint with the bank. Im just curious as to how they are even able to do this? A zero balance?? How can they give me a default notice for nothing??
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We can't answer that - you'll need to get the details from Zero as to what account has defaulted and why or whether it's an error.0
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Assuming it's not a mistake, could it be an old debt that you somehow missed that they have sold to a debt buyer hence it's marked as zero?
Sam Vimes' Boots Theory of Socioeconomic Unfairness:
People are rich because they spend less money. A poor man buys $10 boots that last a season or two before he's walking in wet shoes and has to buy another pair. A rich man buys $50 boots that are made better and give him 10 years of dry feet. The poor man has spent $100 over those 10 years and still has wet feet.
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sorry you misread my post. the default notice was from starling bank - for a zero amount. ive never owed them anything. how can they enter a default notice for a zero amount when i dont even have an agreement with them
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im hoping it is a mistake. i dont have any old debt with starling. used them for years with no overdrawn amounts. i dont have any agreements with them to speak of. im just curious as to how theyre allowed to enter a default notice of a 0 amount.Nasqueron said:Assuming it's not a mistake, could it be an old debt that you somehow missed that they have sold to a debt buyer hence it's marked as zero?0 -
That's the bit you need to clarify with them.Damo66a said:how can they enter a default notice for a zero amount when i dont even have an agreement with them
There is obviously some information other than a non-existent account with a zero balance that they hold or an error.0 -
What form does this default notice take?
Letter? what does it say?
Email, again, what does it say?
A default notice can only be issued if you have failed to keep to the terms of a loan or a credit account of some kind.I’m a Forum Ambassador and I support the Forum Team on the Debt free wannabe, Credit file and ratings, and Bankruptcy and living with it boards. If you need any help on these boards, do let me know. Please note that Ambassadors are not moderators. Any posts you spot in breach of the Forum Rules should be reported via the report button, or by emailing forumteam@moneysavingexpert.com. All views are my own and not the official line of MoneySavingExpert.For free non-judgemental debt advice, contact either Stepchange, National Debtline, or CitizensAdviceBureaux.Link to SOA Calculator- https://www.stoozing.com/soa.php The "provit letter" is here-https://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/discussion/2607247/letter-when-you-know-nothing-about-about-the-debt-aka-prove-it-letter0 -
Basically if you had a default for say £100, the bank would report that every month. If they then sold the debt, they'd mark it as closed with £0 debt and the debt buyer then reports the default.Damo66a said:
im hoping it is a mistake. i dont have any old debt with starling. used them for years with no overdrawn amounts. i dont have any agreements with them to speak of. im just curious as to how theyre allowed to enter a default notice of a 0 amount.Nasqueron said:Assuming it's not a mistake, could it be an old debt that you somehow missed that they have sold to a debt buyer hence it's marked as zero?
If there is no other credit history of this debt, it's probably a mistake but check with Experian / Equifax / Trans Union to seeSam Vimes' Boots Theory of Socioeconomic Unfairness:
People are rich because they spend less money. A poor man buys $10 boots that last a season or two before he's walking in wet shoes and has to buy another pair. A rich man buys $50 boots that are made better and give him 10 years of dry feet. The poor man has spent $100 over those 10 years and still has wet feet.
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