Default Notice for Zero

Damo66a

Hi there, 

I found out yesterday that a default notice was issued against me for a 0 balance from my bank. Ive never had a credit facility with them, never been over drawn but theyve entered a default notice against me. I've disputed it with transunion and raised a complaint with the bank. Im just curious as to how they are even able to do this? A zero balance?? How can they give me a default notice for nothing??

MorningcoffeeIV

We can't answer that - you'll need to get the details from Zero as to what account has defaulted and why or whether it's an error.

Nasqueron

Assuming it's not a mistake, could it be an old debt that you somehow missed that they have sold to a debt buyer hence it's marked as zero?

Damo66a

sorry you misread my post. the default notice was from starling bank - for a zero amount. ive never owed them anything. how can they enter a default notice for a zero amount when i dont even have an agreement with them

Damo66a

Nasqueron said:

Assuming it's not a mistake, could it be an old debt that you somehow missed that they have sold to a debt buyer hence it's marked as zero?

im hoping it is a mistake. i dont have any old debt with starling. used them for years with no overdrawn amounts. i dont have any agreements with them to speak of. im just curious as to how theyre allowed to enter a default notice of a 0 amount. 

MorningcoffeeIV

Damo66a said:

how can they enter a default notice for a zero amount when i dont even have an agreement with them

That's the bit you need to clarify with them.

There is obviously some information other than a non-existent account with a zero balance that they hold or an error.

sourcrates

What form does this default notice take?

Letter? what does it say?
Email, again, what does it say?

A default notice can only be issued if you have failed to keep to the terms of a loan or a credit account of some kind.

Nasqueron

Damo66a said:

Nasqueron said:

Assuming it's not a mistake, could it be an old debt that you somehow missed that they have sold to a debt buyer hence it's marked as zero?

im hoping it is a mistake. i dont have any old debt with starling. used them for years with no overdrawn amounts. i dont have any agreements with them to speak of. im just curious as to how theyre allowed to enter a default notice of a 0 amount. 

Basically if you had a default for say £100, the bank would report that every month. If they then sold the debt, they'd mark it as closed with £0 debt and the debt buyer then reports the default. 

If there is no other credit history of this debt, it's probably a mistake but check with Experian / Equifax / Trans Union to see