We'd like to remind Forumites to please avoid political debate on the Forum... Read More »
We're aware that some users are experiencing technical issues which the team are working to resolve. See the Community Noticeboard for more info. Thank you for your patience.
📨 Have you signed up to the Forum's new Email Digest yet? Get a selection of trending threads sent straight to your inbox daily, weekly or monthly!
Have lenders changed their eligibility criteria?
Options
Comments
-
Superhoopza said:Nasqueron said:Nasqueron said:
Regardless, I am not doubting numbers, but rather if they have had 2 years at 0% and are needing to BT again after 2 years, it's highly unlikely they have been making substantial payments - £208.33 a month would have cleared £5k in 2 years for example which isn't that much particularly vs say paying interest on the balance before the BT was done
It's a classic example of people on here being judgemental before finding out facts. It was reasonably to ask the question, like others have, of what payments have been made before people jump in with unfounded statements and others back them up before facts are known.
Hoenir said they only made minimal (not minimum) payments in their comment.
You asked how they came to that conclusion
I said that it was a fair assumption based on the fact they need to do a BT again after a 2 year deal ran out. This is a logical assumption however, as (using fictitious data) someone with say a 5k debt who needed to do a BT at the end isn't likely to have 50p left to payoff and BT. The same if there was a 10k debt or even a 1k debt and they were a low earner
Thus in answer to your post, it is fair to assume they have NOT been making substantial payments and thus minimal (not minimum) if they have sufficient balance left after 2 years that they are in need of another BT to pay off the remaining balance
Looking at their post history, it may well be we get an answer in a month or even 9 years
I am not interested in continuing a debate on this matter, without any numbers no-one could say definitively what OP has doneSam Vimes' Boots Theory of Socioeconomic Unfairness:
People are rich because they spend less money. A poor man buys $10 boots that last a season or two before he's walking in wet shoes and has to buy another pair. A rich man buys $50 boots that are made better and give him 10 years of dry feet. The poor man has spent $100 over those 10 years and still has wet feet.
0 -
Nasqueron said:
I am not interested in continuing a debate on this matter, without any numbers no-one could say definitively what OP has done
As you tried to be pedantic, that was not so smart:
First definition on google of minimal:
of a minimum amount, quantity, or degree; negligible:
0 -
It could be linked to the fact that interest rates have gone up. The checks assess - amongst other things - your ability to make repayments so, even if you're income goes up, rate increases can result in a net negative position0
Confirm your email address to Create Threads and Reply

Categories
- All Categories
- 351K Banking & Borrowing
- 253.1K Reduce Debt & Boost Income
- 453.6K Spending & Discounts
- 244K Work, Benefits & Business
- 599K Mortgages, Homes & Bills
- 176.9K Life & Family
- 257.4K Travel & Transport
- 1.5M Hobbies & Leisure
- 16.1K Discuss & Feedback
- 37.6K Read-Only Boards