Builders sending invoices 2 years after project completion

andypassingham

Thanks for the clarifications. Did think that was the case  but it’s just so annoying this time later and it’s a chunk of cash.  Will have to see if there is a deal to be done!

GrubbyGirl_2

Does it not depend on what the final invoice says?  When I had a full house renovation the total cost was £20k more than the quote because there were some unforeseen problems and I added a couple of things in.  Because of he significant price difference my builder listed the original quote and absolutely everything extra that was done.  It was also clearly labelled as final invoice.

So much depends.  If the invoice simply says final invoice for quote XXX and that quote included the worktop then I would say you've paid for it.  However if the final invoice lists everything and doesn't include the worktop they you do have to pay, though after 2 years I would be haggling a little, I'd want to see the invoice from the supplier and I'd want written confirmation that there is nothing else going to come out of the woodwork.

comeandgo

GrubbyGirl_2 said:

Does it not depend on what the final invoice says?  When I had a full house renovation the total cost was £20k more than the quote because there were some unforeseen problems and I added a couple of things in.  Because of he significant price difference my builder listed the original quote and absolutely everything extra that was done.  It was also clearly labelled as final invoice.

So much depends.  If the invoice simply says final invoice for quote XXX and that quote included the worktop then I would say you've paid for it.  However if the final invoice lists everything and doesn't include the worktop they you do have to pay, though after 2 years I would be haggling a little, I'd want to see the invoice from the supplier and I'd want written confirmation that there is nothing else going to come out of the woodwork.

No it does not, the OP has had the use of part of a kitchen for two years yet paid nothing for it and now wants to knock the price down.  Words escape me.

the_lunatic_is_in_my_head

If the builder gave OP an original quote of “kitchen” for £20k and OP has paid £20k then the builder is out of luck.

If the original quote was itemised and included the worktop for £20k and OP has paid £20k then the builder is out of luck.

If all the paperwork omits the worktop then sadly OP is out of luck. 

I wouldn’t pay anything without scrutinising the paperwork, if the builder is on the ball then the money is likely due however the fact they’ve missed this for 2 years makes you wonder how well they’re paperwork was in order. 

macman

andypassingham said:

Thanks for the clarifications. Did think that was the case  but it’s just so annoying this time later and it’s a chunk of cash.  Will have to see if there is a deal to be done!

If you do owe the £3k, then you've had a 3 year interest-free loan for that amount.
Yes, it is quite a chunk of cash, which makes me wonder why you don't know if you have paid £3k less than the contracted amount or not?

GrubbyGirl_2

comeandgo said:

GrubbyGirl_2 said:

Does it not depend on what the final invoice says?  When I had a full house renovation the total cost was £20k more than the quote because there were some unforeseen problems and I added a couple of things in.  Because of he significant price difference my builder listed the original quote and absolutely everything extra that was done.  It was also clearly labelled as final invoice.

So much depends.  If the invoice simply says final invoice for quote XXX and that quote included the worktop then I would say you've paid for it.  However if the final invoice lists everything and doesn't include the worktop they you do have to pay, though after 2 years I would be haggling a little, I'd want to see the invoice from the supplier and I'd want written confirmation that there is nothing else going to come out of the woodwork.

No it does not, the OP has had the use of part of a kitchen for two years yet paid nothing for it and now wants to knock the price down.  Words escape me.

As I said, and perhaps you want to read it again, it depends on what the invoice states. If the invoice he paid includes the worktop then he has paid for it, if it doesn’t then he hasn’t paid for it. However as others have said if he got a quote for a kitchen at £x and that quote included the worktop and the OP paid £x then he has paid for it. If the invoice was £x - £3k then he hasn’t. 

MeteredOut

GrubbyGirl_2 said:

comeandgo said:

GrubbyGirl_2 said:

Does it not depend on what the final invoice says?  When I had a full house renovation the total cost was £20k more than the quote because there were some unforeseen problems and I added a couple of things in.  Because of he significant price difference my builder listed the original quote and absolutely everything extra that was done.  It was also clearly labelled as final invoice.

So much depends.  If the invoice simply says final invoice for quote XXX and that quote included the worktop then I would say you've paid for it.  However if the final invoice lists everything and doesn't include the worktop they you do have to pay, though after 2 years I would be haggling a little, I'd want to see the invoice from the supplier and I'd want written confirmation that there is nothing else going to come out of the woodwork.

No it does not, the OP has had the use of part of a kitchen for two years yet paid nothing for it and now wants to knock the price down.  Words escape me.

As I said, and perhaps you want to read it again, it depends on what the invoice states. If the invoice he paid includes the worktop then he has paid for it, if it doesn’t then he hasn’t paid for it. However as others have said if he got a quote for a kitchen at £x and that quote included the worktop and the OP paid £x then he has paid for it. If the invoice was £x - £3k then he hasn’t. 

OP hasn't signed in since posted up thread on 10th. I think we can quite confidently infer that the invoice did not contain the worktop.