Inheritance and means-tested benefits

Newly_retired

Tenants in common, with very specific shares, based on the amount of money originally contributed by each party, not 50:50, and definitely not joint tenants, so thank you, but not relevant here. 

My question was purely about Deprivation of Assets, as I know there are two or three people on this board who have a good understanding of this. Unfortunately it seems to be one of those areas where there is no definitive answer available, as a Decision Maker will only decide after the event, so to speak. 

peteuk

Newly_retired said:

Tenants in common, with very specific shares, based on the amount of money originally contributed by each party, not 50:50, and definitely not joint tenants, so thank you, but not relevant here. 

My question was purely about Deprivation of Assets, as I know there are two or three people on this board who have a good understanding of this. Unfortunately it seems to be one of those areas where there is no definitive answer available, as a Decision Maker will only decide after the event, so to speak. 

Property will go to probate, as you've said there is no direction on the property but there is on the estate.  This question has recently been asked in different circumstances and it’s hard to answer.  For the relative to accept the property over money, it may take the agreement of the other two benefactors, even then it may be viewed as Deprivation, only person who can give you that answer is a DM.   By which time it’s already been completed as you cant go to DM with hypothetical situations.

Is the estate likely to leave them with with £6K or £16K ( if this is in cash it may need to go through probate)