Council tax recalculated

janienewcastle

Hi everyone. Im pretty new here and hoping you will all be able to help....... My husband and I have been living in my mothers house for the past 4 years (mam lives with her partner in his house) We pay 'rent' and the council tax to my her on a monthly basis. In July her partner sold his place and they both started to rent a house together, mam took her name off the council tax bill while my husband and I looked into buying the property from her......Anyway, at the end of October we bought the house and got the council tax bill into our names.
My question is that my husband and I were living with his parents/travelling and the house stood empty between july and october but we were still paying the council tax during this period - i get really scared about keeping bills up to date!!. My mother has received a rebate of tax back (and gave that back to us)but the council have billed us from july when technically we were not at the house. Would we still be liable for the payments between the vacant period or could I get the bill revised from october when we bought the house?????:rolleyes:
Hope someone can help!!!! Merry Christmas!

silvercar

I think the house needs to be empty to claim a rebate.

The council tax is noemally based on who lives there rather than who owns the property. Was your mother claiming a single person reduction when you both lived there (as thats how your post reads)?

takoo

You post is not easy to follow but as I understand it:

• You left the house for about four months before October.
• However you paid the council tax to the council during that time in your own name(?)
• Your Mum's name was removed by her - with the council - when?
• if so what was the rebate for? what period? etc
• In October you returned to live in it
• Did you move the furniture back or was it still there ?

I am not sure of the answer but:

• did the furniture remain in the house whilst you were away?
• was the furniture removed and stored elsewhere?
• if removed who removed it.?
• if it remained, who paid the building and contents insurances
• was the house occupied at any time
• where was mail delivered to?

Questions like these would establish vacacy or "occupation" for CT purposes.

Generally, the owner of a a completely empty house pays no CT for a shortish prescribed period of months- ???six months I think. If furniture remained in the house it is likely to to be treated as still being occupied for council tax - so the payments you made to the council to the council would probably be OK for the four months if they were for full CT.

As raised by Silercar - Hopefully the payments of CT in the four years to July were for the full CT ie with no deduction of the single person discount (SDP) of 25% (off).
If the CT was less than it should have been the Council is due its "loss".

It may be simply a mistake or otherwise. If the latter the Department for Works and Pensions have a system of "voluntary disclosure". After which prosecution does not usually follow. Once a formal investigation commences the DWP do not treat voluntary disclosure in the same manner.

It may be that you or you mother could talk to the Citizens Advice Bureau.

Good luck

Tatoo

janienewcastle

Hi there, thanks very much for the feedback.... Just to clear up a few points......The council tax has always been in my mothers name up until July and she was also paying the full CT( no discounts). The rebate she got back was for period July-October Her furniture was moved out by her in July when my hubbie and I decided to move out, Mail was also redirected to mams new house.
I think i will take this forward with the council, I understand its a unusual situation but nothing ventured nothing gained eh????
Once again, thanks and a very merry christmas!!!