Historic purchase of a new car on 0% Finance

Snoopy481148

Hi all .... in November 2012, I bought a new car from a well known dealership on 0% finance as I new I would be retiring in the next couple of years.  Recently, I have been receiving those emails regarding claiming for mis-sold car finance and decided to check my purchase paperwork to see if anything looked applicable ( although I am a tad cynical about such things ).  I found an entry on the purchase invoice that stated I had been charged £1200 to settle outstanding HP on my part exchange.  This is the first time I have seen this and it stood out as my part exchange was a previously leased car ( by my employer ) that I paid cash for when I bought it directly from the lease company. So bottom line, the part exchange car was never encumbered with finance and I had signed a dealership form to that effect. I have contacted the dealership and of course they are quoting the 'statute of limitations' that they do not have to listen to my complaint as it is too far in the past. I accept that of course but I am insisting on why they have put £1200 on my 0% finance deal as an amount needed to settle non existent HP.  I have written to the company chairman and he has decided to ignore my complaint as apart from the protection of time, they cannot ( or do not wish to )  explain this obvious irregularity.  I understand that the 'Statute of Limitations' may be circumvented if I had good cause to not find the error until only recently which I believe I had and explained the reasons why. The other possible consideration is that  invoicing with a fabricated part exchange amount may have reduced VAT liability in some way?  I would love any comments who may have experienced similar or perhaps hear from people connected with the motor trade who know how this works!  

Grey_Critic

Companies keep documentation for Seven years as required by law they are then shredded/disposed of.

I actually was charged by one company to do that. We decided we would keep 8 years documentation They are not being difficult but may simply not be able yo go back as far as 2012

HillStreetBlues

Snoopy481148 said:

  I understand that the 'Statute of Limitations' may be circumvented if I had good cause to not find the error until only recently which I believe I had and explained the reasons why.

You won't get anywhere with that reason (or any other reason) if you had the paperwork that showed the error for over 10 years

Dazed_and_C0nfused

HillStreetBlues said:

Snoopy481148 said:

  I understand that the 'Statute of Limitations' may be circumvented if I had good cause to not find the error until only recently which I believe I had and explained the reasons why.

You won't get anywhere with that reason (or any other reason) if you had the paperwork that showed the error for over 10 years

Which doesn't appear to have even been an error for over 10 years as you would have raised it at the time if you were unhappy with the purchase invoice.

Grumpy_chap

Snoopy481148 said:

Hi all .... in November 2012, I bought a new car from a well known dealership on 0% finance as I new I would be retiring in the next couple of years.  Recently, I have been receiving those emails regarding claiming for mis-sold car finance and decided to check my purchase paperwork to see if anything looked applicable ( although I am a tad cynical about such things ).  I found an entry on the purchase invoice that stated I had been charged £1200 to settle outstanding HP on my part exchange.  This is the first time I have seen this and it stood out as my part exchange was a previously leased car ( by my employer ) that I paid cash for when I bought it directly from the lease company. So bottom line, the part exchange car was never encumbered with finance and I had signed a dealership form to that effect. I have contacted the dealership and of course they are quoting the 'statute of limitations' that they do not have to listen to my complaint as it is too far in the past. I accept that of course but I am insisting on why they have put £1200 on my 0% finance deal as an amount needed to settle non existent HP.  I have written to the company chairman and he has decided to ignore my complaint as apart from the protection of time, they cannot ( or do not wish to )  explain this obvious irregularity.  I understand that the 'Statute of Limitations' may be circumvented if I had good cause to not find the error until only recently which I believe I had and explained the reasons why. The other possible consideration is that  invoicing with a fabricated part exchange amount may have reduced VAT liability in some way?  I would love any comments who may have experienced similar or perhaps hear from people connected with the motor trade who know how this works!  

What were you paid for the part exchange when the car was purchased in 2012?
Was the £1.2k simply the value of the part exchange?
Or are you saying that you were overcharged by £1.2k somehow? 

I would have thought it would have been quite difficult to have been overcharged given the deal was interest free.
You bought a new car for £x
You traded in your old car for £y
The balance to pay was £z
You paid A months at £B per month.
Did A x £B equal £z?

Nearlyold

Have you compared the figures in the HP agreement with those on the invoice?

sheramber

if I had good cause to not find the error until only recently which I believe I had and explained the reasons why.

What were your reasons  that were a good cause for not finding out  the error at the time of purchase and when you were given the invoice?