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Refused proof of sale - what do I do?
KimAlexa18989
Posts: 6 Forumite
I owned a villa in Turkey as a holiday home but made the decision last year to sell it and invest the money in a property here in England, where I live.
I gave my property manager over there power of attorney to act on my behalf, to save me from flying over there regularly. He has managed my property for 10 years and I had no reason not to trust him with this.
I received a call from him to say that he had a GBP cash buyer for the villa and we agreed an amount. He told me his colleague would transfer me the money using her English bank account as to avoid losing money with the EUR to GBP exchange rate. I didn't think anything of it at the time and the money landed in my English bank account as expected, from the name of his colleague that he provided me with.
He sent me over the Turkish version of the deeds now in the new owners name but he has not sent any other documentation to evidence that he has sold my property for the agreed £xxx,xxx. I.e., no receipt as such.
I want to use some of the villa sale money to purchase a property outright in the UK, however my solicitor has said that he cannot accept the deeds as proof of sale. Since asking my Turkish property manager for evidence of the sale, he has turned very short and rude with me, refusing to send anything on as he said I now have the money so don't need anything else. He has blocked me so I can no longer make contact with him, and both his colleague and the new owner are refusing to speak with me.
I therefore, according to my solicitor, have no proof of where those funds have come from and cannot use them to purchase the property. I have £xxx,xxx in my bank and cannot use it. My bank have not asked why I suddenly had that deposited into my bank... is there anything I can do? I am so frustrated that I want to buy a house I have seen and cannot use that money. I ideally don't want a mortgage either.
Is there anything I could use to evidence the sale? Thank you for your help.
I gave my property manager over there power of attorney to act on my behalf, to save me from flying over there regularly. He has managed my property for 10 years and I had no reason not to trust him with this.
I received a call from him to say that he had a GBP cash buyer for the villa and we agreed an amount. He told me his colleague would transfer me the money using her English bank account as to avoid losing money with the EUR to GBP exchange rate. I didn't think anything of it at the time and the money landed in my English bank account as expected, from the name of his colleague that he provided me with.
He sent me over the Turkish version of the deeds now in the new owners name but he has not sent any other documentation to evidence that he has sold my property for the agreed £xxx,xxx. I.e., no receipt as such.
I want to use some of the villa sale money to purchase a property outright in the UK, however my solicitor has said that he cannot accept the deeds as proof of sale. Since asking my Turkish property manager for evidence of the sale, he has turned very short and rude with me, refusing to send anything on as he said I now have the money so don't need anything else. He has blocked me so I can no longer make contact with him, and both his colleague and the new owner are refusing to speak with me.
I therefore, according to my solicitor, have no proof of where those funds have come from and cannot use them to purchase the property. I have £xxx,xxx in my bank and cannot use it. My bank have not asked why I suddenly had that deposited into my bank... is there anything I can do? I am so frustrated that I want to buy a house I have seen and cannot use that money. I ideally don't want a mortgage either.
Is there anything I could use to evidence the sale? Thank you for your help.
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Comments
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This is probably more one for the House Buying etc board as it doesn't really have anything to do with Consumer Rights.
How long ago did you get the money? Once it's been in your account for long enough, it should be less of a problem, as at some point it's going to be presumed to be really your money rather than part of a money-laundering scheme.
Otherwise, doesn't your solicitor have any suggestions of alternative evidence they might accept? Proof that you used to own the property, and now don't, and you've received money in the interim, does seem at least persuasive that you acquired the money by selling the property...
Also...is this a different property from your other house-selling-proceeds problem from earlier today?
https://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/discussion/6431559/selling-house-privately-can-i-just-accept-a-bank-transfer#latest
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have you considered if you are liable to Capital Gains tax on the sale of the house?0
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