in Employment, jobseeking & training
7 replies 281 views
I’ve just found out that my husband’s employer has only been paying him 2 weeks holiday pay + Bank holidays for years and has never given him the correct holiday entitlement. My husband mentioned it to his boss (it’s a small company) last year and his boss told him around middle of September last year that the was entitled to 28 days (his leave year ends at the end of September) so he was told it was too late to take it. His boss has now said he got it wrong and he was only actually entitled to the original 2 weeks + Bank holidays as he is classed as a franchise. He’s not a franchise as he is PAYE, his employer pays towards his pension scheme and they paid him furlough, so surely he’s not a franchise, is he? Not sure where to go from here? Please help.
Latest MSE News and Guides
British Gas prepay meter users...
...to pay less for gas from 1 AprilMSE News
The 'odd Easter flavours' thread 2023
What bizarre food stuffs have you spied?MSE Forum
Energy Price Guarantee calculator
How much you'll likely pay from AprilMSE Tools
I think to offer any useful advice would need a better understanding about the "franchise" situation and why the employer might (rightly or wrongly) believe that is the case.
Yes, assuming he is a straightforward full time employee the minimum entitlement is 28 days. Often that is thought of as 20 days plus bank holidays but technically the entitlement is simply 28 days and bank holidays are irrelevant.
Also, he has been paying him holiday pay for years, although not enough.
I am not an expert on franchises but, as I said earlier, you need to understand the "employer's" reasoning then investigate whether they are right or wrong.
Reference to 'franchise' is nonsense
Is the employer the holder of a franchise?